I agree that a phenomena of "white privilege" exists. In fact, i'd say it's fairly obvious that it does.
The problem, however, in these discussions, is that the people arguing for white privilege, generally try to argue it as an absolute; that is to say, they argue that it is solely because of white privilege (and the underlying racism) that unequal results happen. They argue that until results are equal among different races, that racism is at play in skewing those results.
I find that most articles and studies that try to quantify white privilege do a poor job of quantifying this privilege, because race is almost never the sole difference. No two people are "equal", not to mention the populations of multiple demographic groups.
Perceived problem: Whites, and specifically white men, are over represented in positions of power and prestige.
Argument by white privilege advocates: The over representation of white people in positions of power and prestige is a reflection on inherent advantage given to white people by white people. If no "white privilege" existed, then blacks would occupy a number of positions of power and prestige as their proportion in the general population.
Question: Is it not possible that there are, in fact, other racial factors (differences) that come into play?
Additional questions, the answers to which helps provide an answer to the much more general question, above: In both the NFL and NBA blacks are very much over represented relative to their proportion in the general population, and whites are very much under represented relative to their proportion in the general population. Are these disproportions a results of some sort of "pro-black" racism, or is it not possible, that there are other racial factors (differences) that come into play? If the measure of of a level playing field is the equality of results (as opposed to ...shudder...genetic differences), shouldn't we then expect these arenas to also have populations proportionate to the general population?
Again, let's be clear. I'm not denying that white privilege does, indeed exist. I'm not denying that white privilege does, as a whole, skew results to give advantages to people based upon race. My questions pertain to the assessment of the impact of white privilege and the false assumptions of what results a lack of white privilege would yield.
The problem, however, in these discussions, is that the people arguing for white privilege, generally try to argue it as an absolute; that is to say, they argue that it is solely because of white privilege (and the underlying racism) that unequal results happen. They argue that until results are equal among different races, that racism is at play in skewing those results.
I find that most articles and studies that try to quantify white privilege do a poor job of quantifying this privilege, because race is almost never the sole difference. No two people are "equal", not to mention the populations of multiple demographic groups.
Perceived problem: Whites, and specifically white men, are over represented in positions of power and prestige.
Argument by white privilege advocates: The over representation of white people in positions of power and prestige is a reflection on inherent advantage given to white people by white people. If no "white privilege" existed, then blacks would occupy a number of positions of power and prestige as their proportion in the general population.
Question: Is it not possible that there are, in fact, other racial factors (differences) that come into play?
Additional questions, the answers to which helps provide an answer to the much more general question, above: In both the NFL and NBA blacks are very much over represented relative to their proportion in the general population, and whites are very much under represented relative to their proportion in the general population. Are these disproportions a results of some sort of "pro-black" racism, or is it not possible, that there are other racial factors (differences) that come into play? If the measure of of a level playing field is the equality of results (as opposed to ...shudder...genetic differences), shouldn't we then expect these arenas to also have populations proportionate to the general population?
Again, let's be clear. I'm not denying that white privilege does, indeed exist. I'm not denying that white privilege does, as a whole, skew results to give advantages to people based upon race. My questions pertain to the assessment of the impact of white privilege and the false assumptions of what results a lack of white privilege would yield.
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