I was just reading through another thread and I noticed a comment to the effect of "God's foreknowledge is not causal." I have to agree with this statement, but this does not clear the way for free-will to exist in the presence of an omniscient being. If a being has perfect foreknowledge of all events then there is only one course of action for any "thing" contained within the universe. In order for free-will to exist there must be multiple courses of actions possible. Since all events are foreknown, it is also know that there is only one course of action to be taken. Therefore free-will is not compatible with omniscience.