BigCedar said:If DH had inserted the word "perceived" before "choices" would that solve the problem?
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BigCedar said:If DH had inserted the word "perceived" before "choices" would that solve the problem?
If everyone involved is controled by time and time is not relative perhaps. If however the choice that is known before I am born was infact a choice out of many options, then the simple knowledge of knowing what option I am going to chose does not effect the fact that I had many options. What is determined is not the one result. What is determinged before I was born is the one result that I chose.this seems to be going round in circles. My reasoning is actually quite simple: If actions and outcomes are perfectly known ahead of the time they happen, then they are determined ahead of the time they take place, and the persons involved are not those who determine them, because those persons must act like foreknown.
What God foreknows is that we will have a choice and what choice we will make.I´m sorry - I don´t understand this sentence.
And it is impossible to perceive an omniscient God and it is impossible to perceive or even concieve a time line without beginning and without end.I am not assuming anything about God. I am merely talking about things foreknown, and in the post you referred to I have made a point concerning this obscure realm beyond time. I have specifically adressed the impossibility of perceiving time (and that which is dependent on it, like change, choice and development) from a hypothetical position "beyond time".
Yes, and for persons or entities who are not experiencing time, they aren´t experiencable at all. They are not even concepts for them.
Repeating yourself would not answer the question.I would have to repeat myself, something I am assuming both of us are tired of by now.
But what if the foreknowledge is that the actor will have a choice and the actor will make a particular choice out of the options the actor will have?Again: I am not talking about your God. The person foreknowing is completely irrelevant in my argumentation. There doesn´t even have to be a determining person or entity. Only point is that there is no choice left for the actor in a foreknown action.
Yes, and it still doesn´t make sense to me. You haven´t explained it, you have merely claimed it. If something is "fixed" ahead of time, then that is the very opposite of there being choice involved in the actual situation, if the word "choice" is supposed to have any sense beyond "perceiving options".
I hear you say that but to believe the person making the choice has not choice then you have to be saying the dtermining agent is not that person. So who is the determining agent? I answer that question with the one who is making the choice. How do you answer it?I would like to have a clear statement from you so that this is settled once and for all: Do you realize that I do not claim that the foreknowing person must be the determining agent?
Is it possible the omniscient being will know that you could have chosen X or Z along with the fact that you will chose Y? Does that matter? I am saying the fact that God knows what we will chose does not mean God is unable to know and at the same time create us a being with the ability to chose. If knowing what we are going to chose is not what sets the choice in stone, but the actual choice itself is what sets it in stone, then does knowing negate choice?Danhalen said:elman:
You continually assert omniscience does not negate the ability to choose. You have offered no logical argumentation to support this assertion. How do you propose we are free to choose our actions from a myriad of options if there is only one course of action available? No one is claiming an omniscient being makes our decisions for us. We are claiming our actions are set in stone - since they are known inerrantly - prior to being taken.
If you have choices X, Y and Z, and the omniscient being knows you will choose Y, is it possible you will choose X or Z?
Well implies is better than requires. The simple fact is that just knowing what is going to happen does not may you the one who causes it to happen.ImmortalTechnique said:it just goes to show that the position is logically bankrupt- the simple fact is that omniscience implies determinism
If one does not know the future then one is not omniscient according to my understanding of omniscient. A square circle is a contridiction in words. It has changed the meaning of square and circle in to no meaning. We cannot know the future. We are not omniscient. If I could know the future it would not mean I caused it to happen.ImmortalTechnique said:the only way I see around this is to say that omniscience does NOT actually include knowledge of the future- if the future is not something that can be known, then it is absurd to include it in any defenition of knowing everything, and would make as much sense as saying that an omniscient being knows what a square circle looks like.
this DOES however, limit god fairly severely, and calls much of prophecy, god's providence, etc. into question
In the first sentence you are begging the question. My position is that the person whom you call "the person making the choice" has no choice in the assumed hypothetical. This is the very point of our disagreement, hence if calling it the person "making the choice" you are excluding my point right from the start. Let´s call this person the "acting person" in order not to beg the question.elman said:I hear you say that but to believe the person making the choice has not choice then you have to be saying the dtermining agent is not that person. So who is the determining agent? I answer that question with the one who is making the choice. How do you answer it?
Omniscience proves determination.elman said:Well implies is better than requires. The simple fact is that just knowing what is going to happen does not may you the one who causes it to happen.
You still haven't shown how it is possible for you to choose X if God knows you will choose Y. Introducing "could have beens" brings you full circle.elman said:Is it possible the omniscient being will know that you could have chosen X or Z along with the fact that you will chose Y? Does that matter? I am saying the fact that God knows what we will chose does not mean God is unable to know and at the same time create us a being with the ability to chose. If knowing what we are going to chose is not what sets the choice in stone, but the actual choice itself is what sets it in stone, then does knowing negate choice?
Exactly Omniscient doesn't guid your wills or controll them. It just knows all. And knowing all disproves freewill.ImmortalTechnique said:the omniscient being doesn't HAVE to be the one who determined the action in order to negate free will. perfect knowledge of the future means that there is no free will, regardless of what determined the future.
in the case of the Biblegod, however, the end result of everything and anything IS that omniscient being's fault since he is the all powerful creator
Yes, it is possible the omniscient being knows I could have chosen X or Z. The omniscient being also knows I will not choose X or Z.elman said:Is it possible the omniscient being will know that you could have chosen X or Z along with the fact that you will chose Y?
It does not matter. If there are any arbitrarily chosen number of options available to me, the fact remains that omniscience precludes the possibility of me choosing anything but the one known option. If it is impossible to choose anything other than the one known option, it is impossible that there really is a choice.Does that matter?
The ability to choose what? There is no choice. If there is a choice then there is more than one possible outcome. The outcome being known necessitates there only being one course of action available.I am saying the fact that God knows what we will chose does not mean God is unable to know and at the same time create us a being with the ability to chose.
Again, I ask you if it is possible to choose from one thing? You keep saying it is our choice which determines the outcome. You refuse to acknowledge that the choice is also known prior to it being made. You refuse to acknowledge that it is impossible to choose anything other than what is known - ahead of time. You refuse to acknowledge how foreknowledge limits all options to zero - since it is impossible to do anything other than what is foreknown.If knowing what we are going to chose is not what sets the choice in stone, but the actual choice itself is what sets it in stone, then does knowing negate choice?
I don't refuse to acknowledge there is only one known result, namely the result I chose, not the knower. I do acknowledge it is impossible to chose anything other than what I chose which is my choice among other options I have. I do acknowledge that the foreknowledge is of my choice and my choice is what limits all other options to zero after I chose it. It is impossible to make any other choice after I make the choice but before the choice I could chose any of the options but if I did that then the choice that would be foreknown would be that option. The foreknowledge is not what freezes my choice into that particular choice. It is my choice that does that. It being impossible to do anything other than what I am going to chose is doing the freezing, not the foreknowledge.Again, I ask you if it is possible to choose from one thing? You keep saying it is our choice which determines the outcome. You refuse to acknowledge that the choice is also known prior to it being made. You refuse to acknowledge that it is impossible to choose anything other than what is known - ahead of time. You refuse to acknowledge how foreknowledge limits all options to zero - since it is impossible to do anything other than what is foreknown.
And it is just repeating to say that the future that is perfectly known and can only play out one way may be a future that was chosen by the actor in that future. How about this:C.S. Lewis described in Mere Christianty the idea of God existing outside of time :ImmortalTechnique said:completely nonsensical. the knowing doesn't limit the choice itself. it is the fact that it can be known that means there IS no choice.
this isn't about choice being taken away, its about there not being one in the first place. A future that is perfectly known can only play out one way. It is determined, and there is no choice in what will happen.
there is no way to explain this to you that hasn't been done already.
God has perfect knowledge of future events.elman said:I don't refuse to acknowledge there is only one known result, namely the result I chose, not the knower. I do acknowledge it is impossible to chose anything other than what I chose which is my choice among other options I have. I do acknowledge that the foreknowledge is of my choice and my choice is what limits all other options to zero after I chose it. It is impossible to make any other choice after I make the choice but before the choice I could chose any of the options but if I did that then the choice that would be foreknown would be that option. The foreknowledge is not what freezes my choice into that particular choice. It is my choice that does that. It being impossible to do anything other than what I am going to chose is doing the freezing, not the foreknowledge.