Olivet Discourse and Revelation Same Event?

Yes or No on Olivet Discourse and Revelation same event

  • I view them as the same event

  • I do not view them as the same event

  • My denomination has no view on it

  • Other [please elaborate]


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strangertoo

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God teaches all saints Himself , as the new covenant states [Heb 8:10-11] and as promised by Jesus many times [e.g.John 16:13]

Satan on the other hand first divides mass religion of sinners, then unites them in worship of him [Rev 13:3-4] when they begin to see that divided religion cannot even mostly be true ...for God gives His ONE Truth to all who follow Jesus command to Love... first then to stop sinning because it is abuse, not Love...

2 Timothy 2:19 Nevertheless the foundation of God standeth sure
having this seal:
The Lord knoweth them that are his.
And:
Let every one that nameth the name of Christ
depart from iniquity.

folks mostly don't stop sinning so cannot be baptised of the spirit to be taught by God.... folks PROMISE to stop sinning, but braek that promise to God, so God leaves them to be freed by sin in DEATH -Romans 6:7 - not by grace then as they turned their noses up at grace by sinning against God and men and their promise to God...

so the few KNOW God's truth now, the many do not, the few are saved now, the many are destroyed [Matt 7:13] ... but do not despair, there is no despair in Love, countless many who are clearly destroyed in this earth as Jesus was destroyed [Greek 'apoleia'] in crucifixion, countless many destroyed now are later saved -Rev 7:9-10... so clearly they are sinners, not resurrected until all are freed from hell [Rev 20;13] to be saved by WORKS [Rev 20:13] , not grace, AFTER death frees them from sin [Rom6:7]

so the many follow Satan in mass religion of this earth [Rev 12:3-4], whilst the few are taken to build the kingdom of Jesus in the new earth where the many are later saved .... as in Jesus parables, the salvation of man is progressive, a power process, the first few being used as kings and priests to help with billions saved later once the few are as pure as Jesus..
God simply excludes sin from the kingdom come, and the first step is toteach Himself all who are saved now in this earth... but if you poll then you will likely get teh view of satan's mass churches of sinners, which is perhaps not what you wanted?
 
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LittleLambofJesus

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Originally Posted by strangertoo My whole point is that its not my words but those of God , which anyone can receive from God to verify what the saints say in scripture , simply by stopping sinning ...

thus there is no point taking a poll of sinners, as you choose to do, if one wants the truth of God ...
:confused:
Not sure what you mean by that. Can you elaborate?
God teaches all saints Himself , as the new covenant states [Heb 8:10-11] and as promised by Jesus many times [e.g.John 16:13]

Satan on the other hand first divides mass religion of sinners, then unites them in worship of him [Rev 13:3-4] when they begin to see that divided religion cannot even mostly be true ...for God gives His ONE Truth to all who follow Jesus command to Love... first then to stop sinning because it is abuse, not Love...

so the many follow Satan in mass religion of this earth [Rev 12:3-4], whilst the few are taken to build the kingdom of Jesus in the new earth where the many are later saved .... as in Jesus parables, the salvation of man is progressive, a power process, the first few being used as kings and priests to help with billions saved later once the few are as pure as Jesus..
God simply excludes sin from the kingdom come, and the first step is toteach Himself all who are saved now in this earth...
but if you poll then you will likely get teh view of satan's mass churches of sinners, which is perhaps not what you wanted?
I suppose this poll can be for both sinners and non-sinners.
Is there anyone here w/o sin?

..
 
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strangertoo

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I suppose this poll can be for both sinners and non-sinners.
Is there anyone here w/o sin?

..

that is for God alone to answer , who has stopped sinning to receive grace ... we know few do and how many [Jude 1:14, Rev 7:3-8]... amounting then to about one in three million alive today being saints of God, all others sinners of Satan...

1 John 3:6 Whosoever abideth in him sinneth not: whosoever sinneth hath not seen him, neither known him
...
1 John 3:8 He that committeth sin is of the devil;

1 John 5:18 We know that whosoever is born of God sinneth not; but he that is begotten of God keepeth himself, and that wicked one toucheth him not.

so excluding sinners will not work as sinners like to pretend they are not sinners, pretend Jesus accepts them as sinners although he states he will not :-

Matthew 7:23 And then will I profess unto them, I never knew you: depart from me, ye that work iniquity.

Luke 13:27 But he shall say, I tell you, I know you not whence ye are; depart from me, all ye workers of iniquity.

2 Timothy 2:19 Nevertheless the foundation of God standeth sure, having this seal, The Lord knoweth them that are his. And, Let every one that nameth the name of Christ depart from iniquity.

so, I'm afraid your question makes no sense, saints never claim to be saints, have no need to and every reason not to presume on God's judgement as that would make them sinners again...

if you want to know the answer then, you will have to ask God , not folks here...
 
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Barraco

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HisdaughterJen said:
Matt 24/Mark 13/Luke 21 appear to be describing events from the ascension of Christ to 70AD to the present and leading up to the Day of the Lord....in other words, a nearly 2000 year time span. (in my opinion) It describes Israel's demise under the wrath of God for nearly 2000 years. It doesn't mention the wrath that is poured out on the earth or the kingdom of the beast, the two witnesses, the various judgments, etc that happen after the earthquake/sun/moon darken.

Agreed.
 
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Barraco

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HisdaughterJen said:
Matt 24/Mark 13/Luke 21 appear to be describing events from the ascension of Christ to 70AD to the present and leading up to the Day of the Lord....in other words, a nearly 2000 year time span. (in my opinion) It describes Israel's demise under the wrath of God for nearly 2000 years. It doesn't mention the wrath that is poured out on the earth or the kingdom of the beast, the two witnesses, the various judgments, etc that happen after the earthquake/sun/moon darken.

Agreed! I was just coming to that conclusion this weekend.

Furthermore, I think that the Olivet Discourse, as well as the end times discussions in the Epistles, were actually interpretations of the book of Revelation.
 
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LittleLambofJesus

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Agreed! I was just coming to that conclusion this weekend.

Furthermore, I think that the Olivet Discourse, as well as the end times discussions in the Epistles, were actually interpretations of the book of Revelation.
Very interesting perspective. I tend to agree.

Current poll results:

View Poll Results: Yes or No on Olivet Discourse and Revelation same event

I view them as the same event
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24 57.14%

I do not view them as the same event
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5 11.90%

My denomination has no view on it
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2 4.76%

Other [please elaborate]
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11 26.19%



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intojoy

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Everything written in the book of revelation was already written by the Hebrew Prophets in the Old Testament except for the last two chapters which speak to the Eternal Order. The purpose of Revelation, or what the book of Revelation does is put into chronological order all of the Old Testament prophecies. If the Old Testament prophecies concerning the first coming of Yeshua were literally fulfilled and they were, then we should expect that all of the Old Testament prophecies concerning the Time of Jacob's Trouble will also be literally fulfilled and they will.
The Olivet Discourse provided the timing for the judgement/curse of the Unpardonable Sin of Matthew 12, the 70 AD destruction of the Jewish Temple and Jerusalem. Also provided in that discourse was the sign of and the timing of the Second Coming. Finally the sign of what will begin the "last days" is given.
 
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Interplanner

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The reason for viewing them as the same event is that the 'woman on the beast' is the Israel that had already done so much damage to God's prophets and apostles (// Mt 23), and the term for the woman is that of the unfaithful wife of a priest, as used in the Septuagint about those cases in Levitical worship, law.
 
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HannibalFlavius

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I suppose this poll can be for both sinners and non-sinners.
Is there anyone here w/o sin?

..


I am without sin.:p

What's all that ,'' troublemaker'' stuff about?

Your not a trouble maker, Maybe me, but not you.

Babylon?
 
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LittleLambofJesus

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Everything written in the book of revelation was already written by the Hebrew Prophets in the Old Testament except for the last two chapters which speak to the Eternal Order. The purpose of Revelation, or what the book of Revelation does is put into chronological order all of the Old Testament prophecies. If the Old Testament prophecies concerning the first coming of Yeshua were literally fulfilled and they were, then we should expect that all of the Old Testament prophecies concerning the Time of Jacob's Trouble will also be literally fulfilled and they will.
The Olivet Discourse provided the timing for the judgement/curse of the Unpardonable Sin of Matthew 12, the 70 AD destruction of the Jewish Temple and Jerusalem.
Also provided in that discourse was the sign of and the timing of the Second Coming. Finally the sign of what will begin the "last days" is given.
Good post and thanks.

View Poll Results: Yes or No on Olivet Discourse and Revelation same event

I view them as the same event
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27 60.00%

I do not view them as the same event
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5 11.11%

My denomination has no view on it
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2 4.44%

Other [please elaborate]
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11 24.44%



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LittleLambofJesus

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Discourse deals with Rom.1:16, ie, Revelation deals with Rom.1:18 - however run synchronous event wise.

Humple pie Jack
Thanks for your input......

View Poll Results: Yes or No on Olivet Discourse and Revelation same event

I view them as the same event
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27 56.25%

I do not view them as the same event
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8 16.67%

My denomination has no view on it
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2 4.17%

Other [please elaborate]
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11 22.92%


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LittleLambofJesus

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The reason for viewing them as the same event is that the 'woman on the beast' is the Israel that had already done so much damage to God's prophets and apostles (// Mt 23),
and the term for the woman is that of the unfaithful wife of a priest, as used in the Septuagint about those cases in Levitical worship, law.
Thanks for your input.

View Poll Results: Yes or No on Olivet Discourse and Revelation same event

I view them as the same event
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29 58.00%

I do not view them as the same event
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8 16.00%

I have no view on it
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2 4.00%

Other [please elaborate]
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11 22.00%


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