There is a TS article that I do not completely agree with. But this addresses this issue:
What about 2 Peter ?
2 Peter was never even written by Peter.
What you might say? Have you searched it out? Of course you should.
So you just pick and choose whatever supports your own assumptions/presuppositions.
The Greek semantics are very different compared to those of 1 Pet. They were not written by the same person.
A number of prominent (need I saw exalted) preachers of yesteryear have reached the same conclusion.
Maybe no one has told you yet because theyre not seeking the truth or are scared to.
How does this guy know the Greek semantics are very different? Some examples please? "
a number of prominent (need I say exalted) preachers of yesteryear have reached the same conclusion.?" Logical fallacy, poisoning the well. Who are these so-called exalted preachers and where can we read what they said? Or do I hear the sound of crickets?
In addition :
(1). PETER KNEW THAT "PAUL" WAS NOT A DISCIPLE OF JESUS
The UTTER IMPOSSIBILTY of the apostle Peter endorsing Paul is shown in Acts Chapter 9 where we read that; despite the testimony of 'Paul' together with the alleged supporting testimony of 'Paul's' disciple Annanias (vs 18) to the bona fides of Paul; Peter and the other apostles and disciples REJECTED Paul: "When he came to Jerusalem he was trying to associate with the disciples; but they were ALL (including Peter) afraid of him, "NOT BELIEVING THAT HE WAS A DISCIPLE" (Acts 9:26).
Being afraid or unsure about Paul is not the same as rejecting him.
The "Twelve apostles of the Lamb" (Rev 21:14) knew that a TRUE DISCIPLE of Jesus would ONLY come to true faith and become a disciple of Jesus ONLY through the word of the Twelve apostles; "those who believe in me through their word" (John 17:20); and NOT from any alleged vision, real or otherwise.
Where is this stated in scripture.
(2). FORGERIES
It is ABUNDANTLY clear that BOTH of the letters attributed to The apostle Peter are in fact FORGERIES, seeking to, not only DISCREDIT Peter, but also to BOOST Paul's credibility at a time when he was REJECTED by 'EVERYONE IN ASIA'(2 Timothy 1:15) as he admitted as much to his disciple Timothy ".
Unlike you I don't believe something just because somebody says "
it is abundantly clear" I want to see clear and convincing evidence.
(3). "DO NOT BE CALLED LEADERS (apostles)..."
Peter just like the other apostles such as Matthew, John, James and Jude; would never give himself the title of 'An Apostle', in OBEDIENCE TO THE EXPRESSED COMMAND OF Jesus.
"But do not be called Rabbi; for One is your Teacher, and you are all brothers.
(Matthew 23:8)
"Do NOT be called leaders (apostles); for ONE IS YOUR LEADER, that is,THE MESSIAH.
(Matthew 23:10)
The Greek word for leaders is
καθηγητής/kathegetes. The word for apostle, a completely different word,
ἀπόστολος/apostolos. Big fail when you have to change scripture to prove your false argument.
THIS ALONE CONFIRMS THAT BOTH 1 and 2 Peter are CRUDE FORGERIES. THE FOLLOWING ARE ADDITIONAL PROOFS:
(4). WRITTEN 'BY SILVANUS'
The INTERNAL evidence confirms that 'I Peter' was clearly written "by Silvanus" (5:12) and NOT by Peter".
'Silvanus' was joint author, together with 'Paul' and Timothy of the letters known as 2 Corinthians together with 1 and 2 Thessalonians.
Who was Silvanus and what is the so-called evidence that proves he wrote 1-2 Peter? Any examples of his writing to compare?
(5). 'PAUL' QUOTES FROM HIS OWN LETTERS IN PSEUDO 1 and 2 Peter
The following are just a few examples which prove conclusively that 'Paul' or his disciples was the author of 1 and 2 Peter.
PAUL'S Misogony (Hatred of women):
(a) "Likewise, you wives, you shall be in subjection to your own husbands" (1 Peter 3:1)
REPEATED by Paul under his own name:
"Wives, submit yourselves unto your own husbands" (Ephesians 5:22)
"Wives, regarding your adorning, let it not be that of the outward adorning of the plaiting of your hair, wearing of gold, or putting on apparel" (1 Peter 3:3)
again repeated by 'Paul' under his own name:
"In like manner also, I command that women adorn themselves in modest apparel with shamefacedness and sobriety -- not with braided hair, or gold, or pearls, or costly array" (1 Timothy 3:9)
"Let the woman learn in silence with all subjection, for I do not tolerate a woman to teach, nor to usurp authority over the man, but to keep her mouth shut" (1 Timothy 2:11).
None of this conclusively proves anything. This is arguments not evidence. 1 Pet 3:1 and 1 Tim 2:11, read Gen 3:16. 1 Pet 3:3 and 1 Tim 3:9 read Isa 3:18-24. Why wouldn't both Peter and Paul quote from or allude to the OT?
(6). WRITTEN IN AND SENT FROM ROME
The INTERNAL evidence, further, confirms that BOTH letters were written in ROME(BABYLON), where ONLY 'PAUL' and NOT Peter, WAS RESIDENT (see Acts 28:30);
"She who is in BABYLON greets you..." (1 Peter 5:13).
Just saying "
internal evidence" is meaningless! What is this so-called internal evidence? Babylon is Babylon and Rome is Rome unless you have clear and convincing evidence otherwise.
(7). THE PURPOSE OF SUCH FORGERIES
1 and 2 Peter, are clearly, "Subtle"(Gen 3:1) forgeries, written by either 'Paul' or his disciples, with the express intention of seeking to boost 'Paul's' credibility at a time when he was REJECTED, not only by The Twelve apostles and disciples of JESUS THE MESSIAH (Acts 9:26) and, subsequently,"by EVERYONE IN ASIA"(2 Tim.1:15) as 'Paul' bitterly complained to his disciple Timothy
No evidence that Paul was rejected by the apostles? If Paul's rejection by pagans in Asia was incriminating why would he have included it in his letter?