My simple proof that God's Will is not always performed

[rnmomof7]

I do not deny actual, responsible choice that has even eternal consequences. And I think I could make your case better than you did. God has ordained that man is responsible for his own choices, yet man will inexorably choose to do according to God's plan. This, according to some, makes God to blame, but God is not one of us, to be blamed for anything.

Exactly..

 

[Mark Quayle]

As you have shown, the term "World" when spoken by Godly men of the Bible is all inclusive or has a negative connotation (as in God of this world and world of iniquity). Crazy to substitute the "non-Jewish Elect" for "the whole world".

John 3:16 says that God gave His only Son to the "World". From your point of view that is inaccurate because He only gave His only begotten for His Own. Can you quote any popular Bible translation of John 3:16 or 1 John 2:2 just as it is to an unsaved friend?

If you are referring to Der Alte's post, no, that is not what he showed. In fact, he showed just the opposite. Repeatedly he asked, "literally.... the whole world?"

Further to say it is 'Crazy to substitute the "non-Jewish Elect" for "the whole world"', (I suppose you are characterizing meaning or use as "substituting" but, ok), is a bit of unnecessary insult, to put it kindly. You would do better to show why it is wrong, or even crazy, if you think it really is, than to merely say it. You, in spite of all your posts, have not even shown it wrong.

 

[Mark Quayle]

Mark 11:23-24 was given in answer to why the fig tree withered up after He cursed it. He is talking about using the spoken word with faith as a power tool. The faith portion requires knowing something is God's Will. This is a hard saying.

Again you use the vague, "God's will". Do you mean by that, "The faith portion requires knowing something is 'what God has planned as certainly going to happen'", or do you mean, "The faith portion requires knowing something is 'what God wishes would happen'", or do you mean "The faith portion requires knowing something is 'what desperately must happen and that for whatever reason God has placed me into the position of being instrumental in bringing it about'", or what do you mean, exactly? Does "God's will" always mean all those things and more?

Vagueness complicates. And no, I am not saying that we must know exactly what a thing means [I certainly do not have to accept a final analysis on just about anything], but I do study to find out as much as I reasonably can, to know him as well as I can.

 

[Mark Quayle]

Calvinist, Charles Spurgeon, writes: “Some of my Brethren are greatly scandalized by the general invitations which I am in the habit of giving to sinners, as sinners. Some of them go the length of asserting that there are no universal invitations in the Word of God.” (The Silver Trumpet, 3/24/1861, emphasis mine)

Spurgeon concludes: “I know the Lord has blessed my appeals to all sorts of sinners and none shall stop me in giving free invitations as long as I find them in this Book. And I do cry with Peter this morning to this vast assembly, ‘Repent and he baptized, every one of you, in the name of the Lord Jesus. For the promise is unto you and to your children, even to as many as the Lord our God shall call.’” (The Silver Trumpet, 3/24/1861, emphasis mine)

Spurgeon states: “I further believe, although certain persons deny it, that the ‘influence of fear’ is to be exercised over the minds of men, and that it ought to operate upon the mind of the preacher himself.” (How to Win Souls for Christ, emphasis mine)

Calvinist, James White, writes: “Jesus does not seek to ‘woo’ them to a ‘freewill decision,’ nor does He strike up a lengthy invitation hymn and try to overcome their stubborn rejection of truth through an emotional appeal.” (Debating Calvinism, pp.121-122, emphasis mine)

One Calvinist explains: “I do not like altar calls because I understand them to be an emotional appeal which pressures people to do something that the Bible does not necessitate.” (Cobb: Altar Call, emphasis mine)

John 3:8 The wind bloweth where it listeth, and thou hearest the sound thereof, but canst not tell whence it cometh, and whither it goeth: so is every one that is born of the Spirit.

You seem to get a bit of spiritual indigestion at what appears to you a contradiction, if not with reason itself, at least between two well-known Calvinists. I do not argue against altar calls, though I do against the assumption that the integrity of man's decision is the hinge upon which his eternal destiny turns, just as would both Spurgeon and White. I have not read your quote from White in context, but knowing the man, I can well guess he meant more than simply "altar calls are worthless and unbiblical". Notice his use of 'freewill decision' and '...nor does He....try to...'. White believes God does not "try" to do anything as though the subsequent failure was not his plan --but that he simply "does", or "does not"

 

[Der Alte]

As you have shown, the term "World" when spoken by Godly men of the Bible is all inclusive or has a negative connotation (as in God of this world and world of iniquity). Crazy to substitute the "non-Jewish Elect" for "the whole world".
John 3:16 says that God gave His only Son to the "World". From your point of view that is inaccurate because He only gave His only begotten for His Own. Can you quote any popular Bible translation of John 3:16 or 1 John 2:2 just as it is to an unsaved friend?

Incorrect!
The Greek word "kosmos" does mean world but it, as with several other words, is used hyperbolically, see the vss. I quoted above.
My point was that how a word is used in a few instances does not change its inherent meaning.