In the Book of Mormon, 2 Nephi 19:1 reads:
Nevertheless, the dimness shall not be such as was in her vexation, when at first he lightly afflicted the land of Zebulun, and the land of Naphtali, and afterwards did more grievously afflict by the way of the Red Sea beyond Jordan in Galilee of the nations.
This verse is a quotation of Isaiah 9:1, which reads in the latest KJV as follows:
Nevertheless the dimness shall not be such as was in her vexation, when at the first he lightly afflicted the land of Zebulun and the land of Naphtali, and afterward did more grievously afflict her by the way of the sea, beyond Jordan, in Galilee of the nations.
Why would Joseph Smith insert the 'Red Sea' instead of just 'the sea'?
Because there was an error in the 1769 KJV version that he was copying from which included the words 'Red Sea'.
How do we know that 'Red Sea' is an error?
During the Kingdom Age (about 1000 BC and onwards), the land of Naphtali bordered the Sea of Galilee to the West. The land of Zabulun bordered Naphtali to the West and South. It is within this region that we find many names from Jesus' ministry - Capernaum, Cana, Genneserat, Bethsaida and, of couse, Galilee. The quotation from Isaiah thus neatly pinpoints the area of the Messiah's future ministry.
The Red Sea, however, is over 250 miles to the South of Galilee, near the Egyptian border. There is no way that Isaiah could at any stage have contained the geographical qualifier "Red".
There is further proof of this assertion. Firstly, the quotation also mentions that "the sea" is beyond Jordan, in Galilee. The Jordan River, of course, empties into the Dead Sea, and never reaches the Red Sea at all. Further, the Red Sea is definitely nowhere near Galilee.
Secondly, this verse from Isaiah was quoted by Matthew in Matthew 4:12-16, specifically with reference to Galilee and Capernaum. The quotation in Matthew is also missing the reference to the Red Sea.
This is funny:
I told my story in another tread and was asked to make a separate post of it.
I'm from Europe and I had never heard about mormons (I had seen boys with name tags but I didn't know who they were) until a while ago when the following happened:
In the 80s my father had remote success with a family saga type novel that was very vaguely based on the story of his ancestors (Andre Kaminski:Kith and Kin). Most of the events and characters in the book were purely fictional though.
A couple of years ago I took interest in genealogy. I started researching online and was amazed to find a very detailed family tree of my father on a website called familysearch. But then I realized that the tree was completely based on the novel and therefore totally inaccurate. What puzzled me even more was that every name in the tree had a baptism date attached because a. my father and his ancestors were all jewish, b. the baptisms all took place 1994 when even my father was already dead for years and c. the baptisms where performed somewhere in Utah...
it took me quite a bit of time and research to connect at least some of the dots.
This is how I found out about mormonism and also your sub, which I frequent since from time to time.
The mormons baptized not only my dead jewish father but also all the fictional characters from one of his novels. • r/exmormon
Satyrs are of Greek mythology:
Isa 13:21 But wild beasts of the desert shall lie there; and their houses shall be full of doleful creatures; and owls shall dwell there, and satyrs shall dance there.
BOM 2 Nephi 23:21 But wild beasts of the desert shall lie there; and their houses shall be full of doleful creatures; and owls shall dwell there, and
satyrs shall dance there.
Note that the Satyr is more of an anachronism than mistranslation. The translation does translate to wild goat, perhaps demonic wild goat,
but Satyrs weren't in artwork until 520-500 BC, and weren't given an English name until around the 14th century AD.