Jack Terrence
Fighting the good fight
Again you are wrenching Old Testament Scriptures out of their context. Isaiah is addressing Judah and Israel. Paul said that the salvation of the Gentiles was not revealed to the Old Testament prophets. He said that it was a "mystery" that had been given him by direct Revelation (Ephesians 3). Furthermore, Paul clearly said that the Gentiles are now included because of Israel's disobedience. Therefore, if Israel had obeyed and theHe shall see His Seed !
Isa 53:10
10 Yet it pleased the Lord to bruise him; he hath put him to grief: when thou shalt make his soul an offering for sin, he shall see his seed, he shall prolong his days, and the pleasure of the Lord shall prosper in his hand.
This His Seed is a Seed that Belongs to Christ, Yes Christ has a Seed or offspring, descendants, children and they are those Chosen in Him before the foundation Eph 1:4; They were given to Him as a Spiritual Seed, just as they were given to adam as a physical, natural seed; and they were Christ's Seed prior to being Adam's, for Christ has the preeminence in all things Col 1:18
18 And he is the head of the body, the church: who is the beginning, the firstborn from the dead; that in all things he might have the preeminence.
Now as His Seed, they shall have the Spirit poured out upon them as the fulfillment of this Promise Isa 44:1-3
Yet now hear, O Jacob my servant; and Israel, whom I have chosen:
2 Thus saith the Lord that made thee, and formed thee from the womb, which will help thee; Fear not, O Jacob, my servant; and thou, Jesurun, whom I have chosen.
3 For I will pour water upon him that is thirsty, and floods upon the dry ground: I will pour my spirit upon thy seed, and my blessing upon thine offspring:
This is why Christ at His Resurrection and Ascension to the Right Hand of God, He was given the Spirit of Promise to pour upon His Spiritual Offspring that He died for Acts 2:30-33
30 Therefore being a prophet, and knowing that God had sworn with an oath to him, that of the fruit of his loins, according to the flesh, he would raise up Christ to sit on his throne;
31 He seeing this before spake of the resurrection of Christ, that his soul was not left in hell, neither his flesh did see corruption.
32 This Jesus hath God raised up, whereof we all are witnesses.
33 Therefore being by the right hand of God exalted, and having received of the Father the promise of the Holy Ghost, he hath shed forth this, which ye now see and hear.
Paul realizes this here Titus 3:5-6
5 Not by works of righteousness which we have done, but according to his mercy he saved us, by the washing of regeneration, and renewing of the Holy Ghost;
6 Which he shed on us abundantly through Jesus Christ our Saviour;
That word shed also means to pour ekcheo:
I pour out (liquid or solid); I shed, bestow liberally.
Thats what Isa 44:3 foretold
3 For I will pour water upon him that is thirsty, and floods upon the dry ground: I will pour my spirit upon thy seed, and my blessing upon thine offspring:
This Pouring of the Spirit on them also saves them Titus 3:5-6
5 Not by works of righteousness which we have done, but according to his mercy he saved us, by the washing of regeneration, and renewing of the Holy Ghost;
6 Which he shed on us abundantly through Jesus Christ our Saviour;
So in order for Matt 1:21 to be complete, to save His People from their sins, this aspect of must also some to pass, the Regenerating Operations of the Spirit must also save them through the Work of Christ ! He saves His People, Seed from their sins !6
Gentiles had not been included Matthew 1:21 would have been complete.
Your anachronistic approach to the Scriptures simply does not work. You are in effect denying that the Gentiles were once "not my people" and "not loved." Jesus said that he was sent ONLY to the lost sheep of the house of Israel. He called the Gentile woman "dog." This statement is recorded in the very book in which the angel told Joseph that he came to save "his people" from their sins. If Jesus knew the Gentiles as his people at that time, then why did he say that he was sent only to the lost sheep of the house of Israel? Why did he call the Gentile woman a dog?
My point that the Calvinist interpretation of Matthew 1:21 implies that Gentiles do not have salvation still stands unrefuted by you.
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