Okay, where does this come from other than the passages in Isaiah and Ezekiel? Anywhere? And how do we know it is anything more than litteral (how do we know it's sybolic/metaphoric)?
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Jesus said in Luke 10: 18 "I saw Satan falling from heaven as a flash of lightning!"Lpspider said:Okay, where does this come from other than the passages in Isaiah and Ezekiel? Anywhere? And how do we know it is anything more than litteral (how do we know it's sybolic/metaphoric)?
Lpspider said:Okay, where does this come from other than the passages in Isaiah and Ezekiel? Anywhere? And how do we know it is anything more than litteral (how do we know it's sybolic/metaphoric)?
Stan53 said:There has been a suggestion that Gen 1:2 may apply here. It has to do with the correct translation of this verse. The correct translation is that the earth became void. Not as the KJV has it, that the earth was void. It has been suggested that this event was satan falling from heaven to earth. The suggestion was that the earth was originally perfect and that satan became corrupt and as a result God caste satan on to the earth. God then went on with the rest of creation and man then fell as a result of being tempted by satan.
I am not sure where I stand on that issue.
This I do believe though, after carefully looking at the hebrew translation, that the correct translation is that the earth became void.
Lpspider said:The issue with the person I'm discussing this with is that Revelations can't work because it hasn't happened yet and so on. And also that Satan can talk to God (I forget where, maybe Job) so he cannot have fallen from heaven.
πεσοντα is the "second aorist active form of the verb" in the original text. I believe this is the word for fall in the Luke 10:18 passage, and supposedly it would be grammatically incorrect to apply it Satan.
:/
Lpspider said:Okay, where does this come from other than the passages in Isaiah and Ezekiel? Anywhere? And how do we know it is anything more than litteral (how do we know it's sybolic/metaphoric)?
GeorgeE said:Lucifer by the tradition of the religious past has always been known as Satan. I see here is that there is a bit of a problem. SATAN'S ORIGIN and character of DARKNESS was spoken of by Jesus and should be enough to settle the querying minds of all, that he was never a shining angel of light.
He made it clear that he was a murderer from THE BEGINNING and concluded His statement by saying, "...And in the truth HE HAS NOT STOOD." Beginning means beginning of source, so how could he have been a messenger or Angel of God if he was a murderer or liar from the beginning.
John. 8:44; 44</SPAN>Ye are of your father the devil, and the lusts of your father ye will do. He was a murderer from the beginning, and abode not in the truth, because there is no truth in him. When he speaketh a lie, he speaketh of his own: for he is a liar, and the father of it.
(I John. 3:8, He that committeth sin is of the devil; for the devil sinneth from the beginning. For this purpose the Son of God was manifested, that he might destroy the works of the devil.
there is no honest way we can say Satan was ever a glorious, shining, angel of light with the name of Lucifer. If this be true, how then, can
Isaiah 14:12 How art thou fallen from heaven, O Lucifer, son of the morning! how art thou cut down to the ground, which didst weaken the nations!
speaking of Satan? It is not likely that it is.
The Devil was a liar from the beginning, not an angel in the beginning. It was Adam (Adam was a son of God) who fell, not Satan.
Isa 45:7 I form the light, and create darkness: I make peace, and create evil: I thewinsome said:Do you mean God created Satan evil ?
If you can show how St. Paul interprets the treading ox as himself and the Apostles, then you can find the answer to your question. If not, at least you can acknowledge that those who are initiated into the allegories of scripture can do so.Lpspider said:hate to dig up this older thread, but...
How can I clearly show that in the Ezekiel passage it's reffering to Satan rather than the King of Tyre?
The main reason why sane thinkers have always balked at the thought of Satan "falling from heaven" is for the simple reason that such a view would tend to undermine any confidence one would have in the integrity of that realm, heaven. If it wasn't safe for those angels, then why will it be safe for me? This problem disappears when once one understands that Lucifer didn't fall from the third heavens but from the second. There were two classes of angels, both mentioned in Job 38:7 - "When the morning stars sang together, and all the sons of God shouted for joy?" - and the ones who fell didnot fall from the eternally perfect heavens but from our universe, though perfect at the time. "Sons of God" could not possibly mean the human race as verses 4-6 of Job 38 are obviously talking about the creation of this Earth and so disqualified Adam from being one of those "Sons of God" with a rebuttal of "Where wast thou...?" from the Lord. Nor is the term "Morning stars" applicable to humanity as Adam the first was truly a terrestrial creature and not a celestial one as the word "star" implies. Lucifer was created a perfect being, but a perfectly mutable being in a likewise perfect but mutable universe. It, they and we all fell. This change worked for the worse for that world of angels and us, but still allows for a change back towards God's original perfect purpose, thankfully.Lpspider said:Okay, where does this come from other than the passages in Isaiah and Ezekiel? Anywhere? And how do we know it is anything more than litteral (how do we know it's sybolic/metaphoric)?