What then? Are we Jews any better off? No, not at all. For we have already charged that all, both Jews and Greeks, are under sin, - Romans 3:9
Hello Hammster.
We both know that Paul was directly addressing the Jews, in the second chapter of
the letter to the Romans (2:17).
I asked you to identify in the letter to the Romans, where Paul stops addressing the
Jews?
You replied with the verse below.
What then? Are we Jews any better off? No, not at all. For we have already
charged that all, both Jews and Greeks, are under sin, - Romans 3:9
I must inform you Hammster that your reply was incorrect.
Paul stated in the verse you indicated, 'Are we Jews any better off', which
means that Paul is most certainly still addressing the Jews both here and
beyond this verse.
Later in chapter three, Paul mentions the verse below.
28 For we maintain that a man is justified by faith apart from works of the Law.
Gentiles were never under this law of Moses, hence Hammster, Paul has no reason
to even mention the 'works of the law' to a Gentile audience. The Gentiles would
not understand what Paul was talking about. Even in this current age, Gentiles have
no real idea what the phrase, 'works of the law' even means.
To further drive home this point, that Paul is actually talking to the Jews in Rome.
We only need to turn the page and start reading the next chapter.
4 What then shall we say that Abraham, our forefather according to the flesh...
Please notice the phrase '
Abraham our forefather', Abraham is not the ancestor,
nor even the father of the Gentiles. The great claim of the Jews, is that they were the
children of Abraham, the Jews were the direct offspring of Abraham.
John 8:39
They (the Jews) answered and said to Him, “Abraham is our father.”
Paul is still addressing the Jews Hammster and there is no doubt about this.
So once again Hammster, may I ask you to identify where in Romans, does Paul
stop addressing the Jews directly, in this letter to the Romans?