Let's Talk About Hell (3)

[theWaris1]

I think you are confusing borrowing words from greek language and borrowing words from greek mythology. I believe Jesus simply used greek words to convey His message and as I stated before.

I don't think so. is there evidence that Jesus spoke Greek?

there is loads of evidence to the contrary. He did speak Aramaic and it was recorded in Aramaic which even made it to our English translations at times..

My personal belief is that the real Primacy of scripture was the Aramaic Peshi tta...

It's very interesting...
Hell was never used in Aramaic

 

[createdtoworship]

I don't think so. is there evidence that Jesus spoke Greek?

there is loads of evidence to the contrary. He did speak Aramaic and it was recorded in Aramaic which even made it to our English translations at times..

My personal belief is that the real Primacy of scripture was the Aramaic Peshi tta...

Jesus knew greek in his conversation with pilate, thats for sure because there was no interpreter present. Now whether or not the greek got into the Bible thats another story. We know that greek is a larger language than hebrew or aramaic, so it's my oppinion that the greek scriptures were chosen by God so that they would spread throughout the modern world amongst the gentiles. Even paul spoke greek when "disputing amongst the grecians"

also the presence of hellenists suggest greek was spoken in the church. So the fact that the church adopted the wording of Hell from greek is significant.

If hell is not in aramaic that is why our Bible is not in aramaic.

 

[createdtoworship]

What Language Did Jesus Speak? - YouTube

http://www.ntgreek.org/answers/nt_written_in_greek.htm#Caiaphas_Tomb

the earliest new testament fragments were in greek!

 

[createdtoworship]

That was my point. But the srciptures must agree if they are rightly divided.

if the prophecy of isreal is in other places there is no need to repeat the prophecy

 

[Timothew]

Isaiah 66:24 speaks of hell before greek mythology was invented.

If Isaiah 66:24 is referring to hell, your theory of hell has more problems than you know. This verse is referring to dead bodies.

And they will go out and look upon the dead bodies of those who rebelled against me; their worm will not die, nor will their fire be quenched, and they will be loathsome to all mankind.

So then, according to you, hell is filled with dead bodies. This is what annihilationism teaches, you are dead when you die. Unless you receive eternal life from Christ, of course.

(Didn't you know that I would jump right on this verse?)

 

[createdtoworship]

If Isaiah 66:24 is referring to hell, your theory of hell has more problems than you know. This verse is referring to dead bodies.

So then, according to you, hell is filled with dead bodies. This is what annihilationism teaches, you are dead when you die. Unless you receive eternal life from Christ, of course.

(Didn't you know that I would jump right on this verse?)

go ahead and believe that, but because they are dead doesn't mean that they are not conscious, look at lazerus and the rich man. I still refuse to believe it is a parable from numerous evidences provided. The truth is that this verse is taught prior to all greek mythology and quoted extensively in the Gospels as referring to Hell. You can't get out of this one timothy, I am feeling sorry for your position now.

 

[Timothew]

go ahead and believe that, but because they are dead doesn't mean that they are not conscious, look at lazerus and the rich man. I still refuse to believe it is a parable from numerous evidences provided. The truth is that this verse is taught prior to all greek mythology and quoted extensively in the Gospels as referring to Hell. You can't get out of this one timothy, I am feeling sorry for your position now.

Are you actually saying, that Isaiah 66:24 should read and be understood as And they will go out and look upon the conscious dead bodies of those who rebelled against me; their worm will not die, nor will their fire be quenched, and they will be loathsome to all mankind?

I'm sorry, but your position is illogical and unbiblical. The bible says these people are looking at dead bodies, not conscious people. Dead people are not conscious. You have to twist reason and twist scripture to come to your conclusion. I'm not willing to do that. You shouldn't feel sorry for my position, you should abandon your unbiblical position.

 

[createdtoworship]

Are you actually saying, that Isaiah 66:24 should read and be understood as And they will go out and look upon the conscious dead bodies of those who rebelled against me; their worm will not die, nor will their fire be quenched, and they will be loathsome to all mankind?

I'm sorry, but your position is illogical and unbiblical. The bible says these people are looking at dead bodies, not conscious people. Dead people are not conscious. You have to twist reason and twist scripture to come to your conclusion. I'm not willing to do that. You shouldn't feel sorry for my position, you should abandon your unbiblical position.

the bible speaks of death and hell being cast into the lake of fire. And if the beast and the false prophet are still in hell after a thousand years, then that means that some are unconscious and others are conscious in your view. I would hardly think so.

 

[createdtoworship]

Hell in the old testament had two compartments just like the story of lazerus and the rich man.

from biblestudying.net

"In the Old Testament and in particular, prior to the death and resurrection of Jesus Christ, those who died in faith were not permitted to go into the presence of God because atonement had not yet been provided.

The word "hell" occurs 31 times in the Old Testament. All 31 of those times, the word translated "hell" is the Hebrew word "sheol." While the English word "hell" has connotations as a place of punishment for the condemned, sheol does not have such connotations. Sheol simply refers to the abode of the dead in general, not particularly the place of the punishment for the wicked. In fact, sheol was divided into two compartments, one for the righteous dead and one for the wicked dead. And, more specifically, the Jewish concept of sheol was the "underworld," or in other words, a place within the earth, underneath the surface world.

And these concepts are substantiated in scripture. The first indication we have that prior to the death and resurrection of Christ, the righteous dead remained in Sheol comes from 1 Samuel 28:6-20. In this passage, Saul enquires of the LORD but the LORD will not answer him. So, Saul then goes to a witch from Endor who, by Saul's request, brings up the spirit of Samuel from the dead. First, in verse 11, both Saul and the witch refer to "bringing up" a spirit. This phrase itself indicates the belief that dead spirits resided "below" or "under" and thus needed to be "brought up."

And in verse 13-14, Saul asks the witch to describe what she sees as she brings up Samuel. The witch replies saying, "I saw gods ascending out of the earth" and "an old man cometh up." Now, the Bible does not deny that this is really occurring nor does it qualify this as a trick of some sort. Instead, the Bible testifies that Samuel actually answers Saul in verse 16. Therefore, the Bible records the reality of these events, particularly that the spirit of the dead prophet Samuel resided within the earth. Thus, this Biblical account substantiates the Jewish concept of sheol as a place below the surface of the earth where the righteous dead resided.

In the New Testament, Jesus himself explains further. In Luke 16:19-31, during a parable, Jesus describes sheol in similar detail.

Luke 16:19 There was a certain rich man, which was clothed in purple and fine linen, and fared sumptuously every day: 20 And there was a certain beggar named Lazarus, which was laid at his gate, full of sores, 21 And desiring to be fed with the crumbs which fell from the rich man's table: moreover the dogs came and licked his sores. 22 And it came to pass, that the beggar died, and was carried by the angels into Abraham's bosom: the rich man also died, and was buried; 23 And in hell he lift up his eyes, being in torments, and seeth Abraham afar off, and Lazarus in his bosom. 24 And he cried and said, Father Abraham, have mercy on me, and send Lazarus, that he may dip the tip of his finger in water, and cool my tongue; for I am tormented in this flame. 25 But Abraham said, Son, remember that thou in thy lifetime receivedst thy good things, and likewise Lazarus evil things: but now he is comforted, and thou art tormented. 26 And beside all this, between us and you there is a great gulf fixed: so that they which would pass from hence to you cannot; neither can they pass to us, that would come from thence. 27 Then he said, I pray thee therefore, father, that thou wouldest send him to my father's house: 28 For I have five brethren; that he may testify unto them, lest they also come into this place of torment. 29 Abraham saith unto him, They have Moses and the prophets; let them hear them. 30 And he said, Nay, father Abraham: but if one went unto them from the dead, they will repent. 31 And he said unto him, If they hear not Moses and the prophets, neither will they be persuaded, though one rose from the dead.

Now, we have no reason to believe that Jesus' depiction of these things is inaccurate. The presumption should be that Jesus' words are not misleading regarding this arrangement of the place of the dead. One other thing that is significant is that the setting of this parable is BEFORE the death and resurrection of Jesus Christ. Therefore, we should not confuse what is depicted in this parable with the situation regarding the dead after the death and resurrection of Christ himself.

Now, what do we learn from Jesus' description in this parable. First, we see that the place of the dead is divided into two compartments separated by a gulf so that those on either side cannot go to the other side. However, the fact that Abraham and the rich man are able to communicate indicates that, although divided, these compartments are in the same general overarching location. Second, we see that the beggar is taken to the side on which Abraham resides. This side of the place of the dead is a place of comfort. And the name for this portion of the place of the dead (where the righteous) go was "the Bosom of Abraham." As we will soon see, this place of the righteous dead was also known as "Paradise." Third, we see that the rich man goes to the other side of the gulf, which is described as a place of fiery torment.

Here, in the words of Jesus' himself we have corroboration for the Jewish concept of sheol. And not only that, but Jesus' words also align perfectly with 1 Samuel 28, where the prophet Samuel is depicted as arising out of the earth.

Additionally, in Luke 23:43 we find Jesus on the cross about to die and he promises the thief that "To day shalt thou be with me in paradise." What does Jesus mean here by Paradise? Did he mean he and the thief were going to the garden of Eden? Did he mean he and the thief were going into the presence of God in heaven? Well, since as we have shown, the Jewish concept of Jesus' day as upheld by both 1 Samuel 28 and Jesus himself in Luke 16, was that the righteous dead such as Samuel, Abraham, and the beggar Lazarus, was a place within the earth. So, as a matter of precedent, we should conclude that this "righteous" thief was going, not to heaven and the presence of God, but to the place of the righteous dead within the earth, the Bosom of Abraham. Thus, the term Paradise would simply be another synonym for the Bosom of Abraham.

The Greek word translated Paradise in Luke 23:24 is "paradeisos." For the Greeks, paradeisos referred to the Persian concept of a well-watered grove, garden, park, or hunting ground, which for the Greeks was a part of hades set aside for the heroic among others and as distinguished from the portion of hades where some of the dead were tortured.

1 Peter 3:18-21;4:6 tells us more.

1 Peter 3:18 For Christ also hath once suffered for sins, the just for the unjust, that he might bring us to God, being put to death in the flesh, but quickened by the Spirit: 19 By which also he went and preached unto the spirits in prison; 20 Which sometime were disobedient, when once the longsuffering of God waited in the days of Noah, while the ark was a preparing, wherein few, that is, eight souls were saved by water.
...4:6 For for this cause was the gospel preached also to them that are dead, that they might be judged according to men in the flesh, but live according to God in the spirit.

Peter tells us that when Christ died, he went and preached to the spirits of the dead who were in prison, particularly those who were disobedient in the days of Noah before the flood. Although we will discuss 1 Peter 3 and 4 again later on in our study as we move to where the dead go after the resurrection of Christ Jesus, for now it is important to note that 1 Peter also corroborates the Jewish concept of sheol as a place of the dead. 1 Peter 3 and 4 demonstrate particularly that disobedient spirits were kept in a prison, which is consistent with the concept of sheol presented in Luke 16, where we find the rich man in a fiery prison separated from the bosom of Abraham by a gulf.

But, not only was sheol a prison for the wicked dead, but it was also a prison for fallen angels and demons. In Luke 8:31, Jesus is casting the Legion of demons out of a man and the demons ask not to be sent to the abyss. In Jude 1:6 and 1 Peter 2:4 we see that some angels are likewise imprisoned in a place of deep darkness. Revelation 9:1-2,11 speaks of an angel being let out of this abyss during the tribulation. And similarly, Revelation 20:1-3 speaks of the chief adversary as being chained in this abyssal pit for the duration of the 1000 year reign of Christ, after which he is let out again for a short time.

Even the Greek words used in the New Testament reflect the Jewish concept of sheol. There are several words translated as hell in the New Testament. Of those Greek words, the two that are relevant to this portion of our study are "hades," "tartaros," "phrear," and "abussos." Tartaros is by definition a dark subterranean region where the wicked dead are imprisoned. Hades also is defined as a dark place within the earth where the dead spirits reside. The New Testament also uses the word "pit" or "abyss" (such as Revelation 9), which is the Greek word "phrear" and refers to a pit below the surface of the earth. In Luke 8:31, the demons beg not to be cast into the deep, which is the Greek word "abussos," which again refers to a deep gulf or chasm within the earth where the dead reside. In fact, phrear and abussos are used almost interchangeably throughout the book of Revelation to refer to the deep pit of imprisonment for fallen angels (Revelation 9:2).

In conclusion, based upon 1 Samuel 28, Luke 16, and 1 Peter 3 and 4, we can conclude that throughout the Old Testament, prior to the death and resurrection of Jesus Christ, both the wicked and the righteous went to a place below the surface of the earth known in general as sheol in the Old Testament Hebrew and hades in the New Testament Greek. Sheol was divided by a gulf. On one side of this gulf was a compartment known as Paradise or Abraham's Bosom where the righteous dead such as Samuel, Abraham, and the beggar Lazarus went and experienced comfort. On the other side of this gulf was a place of imprisonment where the wicked dead and fallen angels were kept in chains and fiery torment spoken of in Jude 1 and 1 Peter 2. This place of imprisonment for the wicked was known interchangeably as Tartaros, the abyss, the pit, or the deep (abussos and phrear.)

So, when we speak of hell in the Old Testement times prior to the death and resurrection of Jesus Christ, we must be careful and deliberate. The English word "hell" automatically denotes a place of torment for the wicked. However, Sheol was not exclusively a place for the wicked. Sheol contained a place for both the torment of wicked dead and the comfort of the righteous dead.

We should note that Sheol is a separate place, distinct from heaven and earth. However, these departed spirits are not allowed to leave Sheol and enter the presence of God in heaven or roam about the earth.

This concludes our examination of the heaven and hell in the Old Testament prior to the death and resurrection of Christ Jesus. We will now move on to our next division of time starting with the death and resurrection of Jesus Christ and concluding with the return of Jesus Christ and the beginning of his millennial reign."

 

[theWaris1]

Jesus knew greek in his conversation with pilate, thats for sure because there was no interpreter present. Now whether or not the greek got into the Bible thats another story. We know that greek is a larger language than hebrew or aramaic, so it's my oppinion that the greek scriptures were chosen by God so that they would spread throughout the modern world amongst the gentiles. Even paul spoke greek when "disputing amongst the grecians"

Where do you find Paul disputing with Grecians in Greek?
Did you know those in Corinth were Hebrews whos forefathers were with Moses at the time of the crossing off the red sea?

also the presence of hellenists suggest greek was spoken in the church. So the fact that the church adopted the wording of Hell from greek is significant.

I don't see Greeks using the word Hellenes to name a place of punishment. They used the word Hades.

If hell is not in aramaic that is why our Bible is not in aramaic.

That isn't a logical conclusion.
the Greeks didn't use HELL. You just reaching.

Aramaic was hidden from most of the world long ago.
The Romans confiscated many scriptures during the persecution of the saints. The Eastern Orthodox has claimed to hold the original scriptures since the beginning and they are in Aramaic according to them.
Aramaic scriptures were found in dead sea scrolls in 1950's. They prove themselves as the primacy and also solve the discrepancies found in the differing Greek versions.

this is a waste of time.
You're proving that you really are only defending what you were led to believe and not anything based on substance or facts. Hell was not used in Greek scripture.

 

[Timothew]

the bible speaks of death and hell being cast into the lake of fire. And if the beast and the false prophet are still in hell after a thousand years, then that means that some are unconscious and others are conscious in your view. I would hardly think so.

In your view the dead bodies in Isaiah 66 are conscious.

Since the Lake of Fire is the second death, just as the bible says, thre is no need to see some as conscious and some unconscious. OK?

 

[createdtoworship]

In your view the dead bodies in Isaiah 66 are conscious.

Since the Lake of Fire is the second death, just as the bible says, thre is no need to see some as conscious and some unconscious. OK?

but the beast and the false prophet are still there after a thousand years?

 

[createdtoworship]

Where do you find Paul disputing with Grecians in Greek?
Did you know those in Corinth were Hebrews whos forefathers were with Moses at the time of the crossing off the red sea?

I don't see Greeks using the word Hellenes to name a place of punishment. They used the word Hades.

That isn't a logical conclusion.
the Greeks didn't use HELL. You just reaching.

Aramaic was hidden from most of the world long ago.
The Romans confiscated many scriptures during the persecution of the saints. The Eastern Orthodox has claimed to hold the original scriptures since the beginning and they are in Aramaic according to them.
Aramaic scriptures were found in dead sea scrolls in 1950's. They prove themselves as the primacy and also solve the discrepancies found in the differing Greek versions.

this is a waste of time.
You're proving that you really are only defending what you were led to believe and not anything based on substance or facts. Hell was not used in Greek scripture.

the oldest manuscripts are in greek, because that was the common language to carry out the Lords evangelistic message. The only reason why greek has discrepancies and aramaic does not is because there are few aramaic manuscripts. Greek is a larger language to describe the wording of Hell. Hell is an english word, this is why it's not in greek. Same thing with the trinity, yet it is none the less a part of christian orthodoxy. This argument is faulty it would be like me telling you that english is not in greek and therefore the aramiac is more accurate. You see?

 

[Mikecpking]

but the beast and the false prophet are still there after a thousand years?

They are not human and the nature of their rebellion was unique to them. They will be tortured forever, but if you notice, even though the people who were thrown into the lake of fire after not being found in the book of life, nothing was mentioned about the duration of their torment, except perhaps the ones that received the mark and worship the beast.

 

[theWaris1]

Why the New Testament was Written in Greek, Not Hebrew

the earliest new testament fragments were in greek!

He proved nothing except that there is a possibility that Jesus spoke other languages. His words were recorded in the NT often in Aramaic his native language.



******** Aramaic**********
Evidence from 1st century Galilee and Judea shows that Aramaic was the main language of the native population. Evidence from within the New Testament supports this view by giving place names and some words of Jesus in Aramaic.

Gabbatha, - Gethsemane, - Golgotha, were all Aramaic place names.


Calvary (Golgotha) is the English-language and comes from Latin word Calvaria and all words means "skull"
Gûlgaltâ is Aramaic


Mar 5:41 And he took the damsel by the hand, and said unto her,Talitha cumi;(Aramaic=Rise) which is, being interpreted, Damsel, I say unto thee, arise. Talitha(the little girl)

Mar 7:34 And looking up to heaven, he sighed, and saith unto him, Ephphatha(Aramaic), that is, Be opened.


eli eli lama sabachthani, “my God, my God, why have you forsaken me?” (Matt. 27:46. Hebrew origin
eloi eloi lama sabachthani, “my God, my God, why have you forsaken me?” ( Mark 15:34). Aramaic




The apostle Paul uses the sentence marana tha, “our Lord, come!” in I Corinthians 16:22. That's the word mar, "lord," with the suffix ana, "our," and the verb "to come" in the imperative.

From Aramaic we find abba, ephphatha, korbanas, mammonas, maranatha, rabbi, raka, talitha koumi, and eloi, eloi, lama sabachthani.


Mat 5:22 ...... and whosoever shall say to his brother, Raca (Rhaka)

rhaka = Of Chaldee origin (compare [H7386]); O empty one, that is, thou worthless (as a term of utter vilification): - Raca.



Mat 27:6 And the chief priests took the silver pieces, and said, It is not lawful for to put them into the treasury(Korbanas), because it is the price of blood.
Korbanas means treasury.

Mat 6:24 No man can serve two masters: for either he will hate the one, and love the other; or else he will hold to the one, and despise the other. Ye cannot serve God and mammon.

Luk 16:9 And I say unto you, Make to yourselves friends of the mammon of unrighteousness; that, when ye fail, they may receive you into everlasting habitations.
Luk 16:11 If therefore ye have not been faithful in the unrighteous mammon, who will commit to your trust the true riches?
Luk 16:13 No servant can serve two masters: for either he will hate the one, and love the other; or else he will hold to the one, and despise the other. Ye cannot serve God and mammon.

mam-mo-nas' = Of Chaldee origin (confidence, that is, figuratively wealth, personified); mammonas, that is, avarice (deified): - mammon.



keph, meaning “rock,” and add the article – simply the syllable a – you get kepha, “the rock,” which also happens to be the original Aramaic name of “Peter,” the nickname of Simon Bar Jona. It shows up in English bibles as “Cephas” (e.g., I Cor. 1:12).


Joh 20:16 Jesus saith unto her, Mary. She turned herself, and saith unto him, Rabboni; which is to say, Master. Rabboni = Aramaic

1 Corinthians 16:22
If any man love not the Lord Jesus Christ, let him be Anathema Maranatha.

Anathema means accursed.
In Aramaic Maranatha means Lord, come!
This was a common Aramaic word play like those found all throughout Aramaic scriptures

Luk 1:15 For he shall be great in the sight of the Lord, and shall drink neither wine nor strong drink(Shikera=Aramaiac); and he shall be filled with the Holy Ghost, even from his mother's womb.

Shikera means Barley Beer in Aramaic


Mark 11:9
Then those who went ahead and those who followed were shouting, Hosanna! Blessed is the one who comes in the name of the Lord!

In Aramaic Hosanna means help.

Ben is Hebwrew for son
Bar is equivlent in Aramaic
Simon Bar Jona Mat 16:17
Bar-tholomew Mat 10:3


Within the text of the Greek New Testament a few words and phrases in Aramaic are included untranslated. These are mainly words of Jesus, and perhaps had a special significance because of this.

A small minority believe that the majority, or the whole, of the New Testament was originally written in Aramaic. This position, called Aramaic primacy, is popular, but most scholars see the Old Syriac and Peshitta versions of the New Testament as clearly based on the Greek. However, the fact remains that there does exist a layer of Aramaic-speaking culture beneath the Greek text, and that agreed point is what is discussed here.

Surprisingly when the aramaic community invites Scholars to debate the idea of Aramaic primacy none are interested.
Why? They just settle for what is most commonly believed? Or these scholars really interested in truth or merely settling?

Plenty of proof that Christ is spoke Aramaic but we should just forget that and focus on the possibility of him speaking Greek?



.

 

[Hillsage]

Jesus knew greek in his conversation with pilate, thats for sure because there was no interpreter present.

Are you sure? Rome spoke Latin...not Greek.

 

[createdtoworship]

He proved nothing except that there is a possibility that Jesus spoke other languages. His words were recorded in the NT often in Aramaic his native language.



******** Aramaic**********
Evidence from 1st century Galilee and Judea shows that Aramaic was the main language of the native population. Evidence from within the New Testament supports this view by giving place names and some words of Jesus in Aramaic.

Gabbatha, - Gethsemane, - Golgotha, were all Aramaic place names.


Calvary (Golgotha) is the English-language and comes from Latin word Calvaria and all words means "skull"
Gûlgaltâ is Aramaic


Mar 5:41 And he took the damsel by the hand, and said unto her,Talitha cumi;(Aramaic=Rise) which is, being interpreted, Damsel, I say unto thee, arise. Talitha(the little girl)

Mar 7:34 And looking up to heaven, he sighed, and saith unto him, Ephphatha(Aramaic), that is, Be opened.


eli eli lama sabachthani, “my God, my God, why have you forsaken me?” (Matt. 27:46. Hebrew origin
eloi eloi lama sabachthani, “my God, my God, why have you forsaken me?” ( Mark 15:34). Aramaic




The apostle Paul uses the sentence marana tha, “our Lord, come!” in I Corinthians 16:22. That's the word mar, "lord," with the suffix ana, "our," and the verb "to come" in the imperative.

From Aramaic we find abba, ephphatha, korbanas, mammonas, maranatha, rabbi, raka, talitha koumi, and eloi, eloi, lama sabachthani.


Mat 5:22 ...... and whosoever shall say to his brother, Raca (Rhaka)

rhaka = Of Chaldee origin (compare [H7386]); O empty one, that is, thou worthless (as a term of utter vilification): - Raca.



Mat 27:6 And the chief priests took the silver pieces, and said, It is not lawful for to put them into the treasury(Korbanas), because it is the price of blood.
Korbanas means treasury.

Mat 6:24 No man can serve two masters: for either he will hate the one, and love the other; or else he will hold to the one, and despise the other. Ye cannot serve God and mammon.

Luk 16:9 And I say unto you, Make to yourselves friends of the mammon of unrighteousness; that, when ye fail, they may receive you into everlasting habitations.
Luk 16:11 If therefore ye have not been faithful in the unrighteous mammon, who will commit to your trust the true riches?
Luk 16:13 No servant can serve two masters: for either he will hate the one, and love the other; or else he will hold to the one, and despise the other. Ye cannot serve God and mammon.

mam-mo-nas' = Of Chaldee origin (confidence, that is, figuratively wealth, personified); mammonas, that is, avarice (deified): - mammon.



keph, meaning “rock,” and add the article – simply the syllable a – you get kepha, “the rock,” which also happens to be the original Aramaic name of “Peter,” the nickname of Simon Bar Jona. It shows up in English bibles as “Cephas” (e.g., I Cor. 1:12).


Joh 20:16 Jesus saith unto her, Mary. She turned herself, and saith unto him, Rabboni; which is to say, Master. Rabboni = Aramaic

1 Corinthians 16:22
If any man love not the Lord Jesus Christ, let him be Anathema Maranatha.

Anathema means accursed.
In Aramaic Maranatha means Lord, come!
This was a common Aramaic word play like those found all throughout Aramaic scriptures

Luk 1:15 For he shall be great in the sight of the Lord, and shall drink neither wine nor strong drink(Shikera=Aramaiac); and he shall be filled with the Holy Ghost, even from his mother's womb.

Shikera means Barley Beer in Aramaic


Mark 11:9
Then those who went ahead and those who followed were shouting, Hosanna! Blessed is the one who comes in the name of the Lord!

In Aramaic Hosanna means help.

Ben is Hebwrew for son
Bar is equivlent in Aramaic
Simon Bar Jona Mat 16:17
Bar-tholomew Mat 10:3


Within the text of the Greek New Testament a few words and phrases in Aramaic are included untranslated. These are mainly words of Jesus, and perhaps had a special significance because of this.

A small minority believe that the majority, or the whole, of the New Testament was originally written in Aramaic. This position, called Aramaic primacy, is popular, but most scholars see the Old Syriac and Peshitta versions of the New Testament as clearly based on the Greek. However, the fact remains that there does exist a layer of Aramaic-speaking culture beneath the Greek text, and that agreed point is what is discussed here.

Surprisingly when the aramaic community invites Scholars to debate the idea of Aramaic primacy none are interested.
Why? They just settle for what is most commonly believed? Or these scholars really interested in truth or merely settling?

Plenty of proof that Christ is spoke Aramaic but we should just forget that and focus on the possibility of him speaking Greek?



.

Not only did He speak greek and aramaic but hebrew as well....
Jesus was mainly a minister of the circumcision and spoke in synagogues, are you suggesting he spoke aramaic and not hebrew? Mammon is also a greek word "mamonas" so it's not just aramaic, he could have been speaking greek on the sermon on the mount. My point being that Christ spoke many languages at different times. So putting a bible into aramaic would only suit a small fraction of the society. Especially the gentiles who were hellenists and romans (greek speaking). A bible in this language would go farther than any other Bible. And because it is the largest language you have more words to describe the facts of God's word. You really have no arguments here that the Bible was originally in greek. All the old manuscripts are greek and belong to the westcott hort family alexandrian I believe.

 

[theWaris1]

the oldest manuscripts are in greek, because that was the common language to carry out the Lords evangelistic message. The only reason why greek has discrepancies and aramaic does not is because there are few aramaic manuscripts. Greek is a larger language to describe the wording of Hell. Hell is an english word, this is why it's not in greek. Same thing with the trinity, yet it is none the less a part of christian orthodoxy. This argument is faulty it would be like me telling you that english is not in greek and therefore the aramiac is more accurate. You see?

No I don't see that. You're slinging many faulty arguments around here.
You claim Hell came from Greek and they didn't use the word Hell. But if you want to believe God can be so brutal to torture his children forever... that's you're call and I repeat that you're not rightly dividing the word. Because he said he never thought to burn sons and daughters in Gehenna(hell)

Many scholars gathered to try and solve the discrepancies found in the Greek text. The Koine and Byzantine text did not agree in areas..
One error is the the number of generations found in the genealogy of Mathew 1 are incorrect.
Count them.. should be 14 x 3 from Abraham to Christ.

Scholars could not find an answer to this error and just gave up. Some Jews use this error to claim the scriptures are invalid. Only the Aramaic offers a solution to the 14 x 3 - 1 dilemma. This changes the entire genealogy of Mathias 1.

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[theWaris1]

Pontus Pilate was from Pontus yes....
What makes you think Christ needed to speak Greek to Pilate?

Pontus was a land of the Lost tribes of Israel as mentioned in 1st Peter 1. The people of Pontus were very familiar with Aramaic seeing how they were enslaved by Aramaic speaking Assyrians who were their distant cousins and also spoke Aramaic. Very possible Pilate understood the Galilean very well. Pilate could have very well been of Hebrew origin.

 

[createdtoworship]

No I don't see that. You're slinging many faulty arguments around here.
You claim Hell came from Greek and they didn't use the word Hell. But if you want to believe God can be so brutal to torture his children forever... that's you're call and I repeat that you're not rightly dividing the word. Because he said he never thought to burn sons and daughters in Gehenna(hell)

Many scholars gathered to try and solve the discrepancies found in the Greek text. The Koine and Byzantine text did not agree in areas..
One error is the the number of generations found in the genealogy of Mathew 1 are incorrect.
Count them.. should be 14 x 3 from Abraham to Christ.

Scholars could not find an answer to this error and just gave up. Some Jews use this error to claim the scriptures are invalid. Only the Aramaic offers a solution to the 14 x 3 - 1 dilemma. This changes the entire genealogy of Mathias 1.

.

I have yet to see a koine text that you speak of? Which is it, I have never heard of it. They are referred to as alexandrian and byzantine.

as far as the contradiction geisler has this to say:

MATTHEW 1:17—How many generations were listed between the captivity and Christ, 14 or 13?
PROBLEM: Matthew says the generations “from the captivity in Babylon until the Christ are fourteen generations” (1:17). However, he lists only 13 names after the captivity is counted. So, which is correct, 13 or 14 ?
SOLUTION: Both are correct. Jeconiah is counted in both lists, since he lived both before and after the captivity. So, there are literally 14 names listed “from the captivity in Babylon until the Christ,” just as Matthew says. There are also literally 14 names listed between David and the captivity, just as Matthew claims (Matt. 1:6–12). There is no error in the text at all.

Geisler, Norman L. ; Howe, Thomas A.: When Critics Ask : A Popular Handbook on Bible Difficulties. Wheaton, Ill. : Victor Books, 1992, S. 326