It would be interesting if you could show how your reply survives the "details" in the texts quoted for you.
Take a shot at it.
============== a simple example of one fail in your post
you claimed
Implying that Rom 3:19-20 has some sort of "just for Jews" element in it.
To which you got this response
You were shown that there is no "Just for Jews" element in Rom 3:19-20,23,31
you were shown that the scope for Sabbath keeping is "all mankind" even in the OT
Isaiah 66:23
you were shown that the KJV has not be "refuted" since even the NASB keeps making that same point in
James 2.
Again you are pointlessly repeating a post that I have already answered. I'm sure it very annoying to followers of this thread.
Ignored.
That speculation was already debunked - do yo want me to post it again??
Bible details so obvious that all major denomination on planet earth admit to it.
Rom 3:23
for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, (not just jews)
1 John 3:4 "
sin is transgression of the law" -- (not ... "just for jews")
Rom 3:19-20 "every mouth" and "all the world" have the problem of sin.. all the world needs salvation "not just Jews"
19 Now we know that whatever the Law says, it speaks to those who are
under the Law, so that every mouth may be closed and
all the world may become accountable to God; 20 because by the works of the Law no flesh will be justified in His sight; for
through the Law comes the knowledge of sin.
Rom 3:31 "
do WE then make void the LAW of God by our faith? on the contrary! We ESTABLISH the LAW"
You have not debunked anything. Nor am I speculating. I quoted from Romans 2 that states simply and unequivocally that Jews only are under the Law. If Romans 3:19 means what you think it means, that the whole world is under the Law, then Paul is contradicting himself. But the verse doesn't actually say the whole world is under the Law does it?
As expos4ever explains in post #82, verse 19 is the conclusion of Paul's explanation in the preceding verses that both Gentiles and Jews are sinners. It is stating that since those under the Law (Jews) are also sinners, the whole world (Jews+Gentiles) is accountable to God.
Here are some excerpts from a couple of highly respected commentaries on Romans that might help you to understand better. The first is from the Pillar Commentary on Romans by Leon Morris (Professor of New Testament at Trinity Evangelical Divinity School), the second is the NICNT commentary on Romans by Douglas Moo (Professor of New Testament at the Wheaton College).
The Epistle to the Romans by LEON MORRIS (PILLAR NEW TESTAMENT COMMENTARY)
All that the law says, then, it says to those who are under the law, or more exactly those who are “in” the law (Moffatt, “inside the Law”). Presumably this means that the people in
question center themselves on the law, have their whole being in the law. What the law
says is certainly addressed to them, not to someone else who is outside the sphere of the
law. Some hold that Paul means everyone in the world (e.g., Murray, Hendriksen), but it is unlikely that Paul’s readers would have held that anyone other than the Jew was under the law. The law, being from God, has its relevance for all mankind, certainly. But Paul’s point here is that the Jew cannot rest on a fancied security, holding that he is safe while the Gentile will come under the judgment of God. The law under which he lives, the law that is addressed to him and on which he prides himself that it is given to him and not to other people, convicts him as well as the Gentiles. The whole world (and not merely the Gentile world) is convicted.
The Epistle to the ROMANS by DOUGLAS J. MOO (NICNT Commentary)
But how is it that Paul can use accusations addressed to Jews ("those
in the law") to declare that all people are guilty? Some would limit the
reference of "every mouth" to Jews, but the parallelism with "the whole
world" makes this unlikely. Probably Paul is using an implicit "from the
greater to the lesser" argument: if Jews, God's chosen people, cannot be
excluded from the scope of sin's tyranny, then it surely follows that Gentiles,
who have no claim on God's favor, are also guilty. We must remember that
Paul's chief purpose throughout Rom. 1:18-3:20 is not to demonstrate that
Gentiles are guilty and in need of God's righteousness — for this could be
assumed — but that Jews bear the same burden and have the same need. It is
for this reason that, while all people are included in the scope of vv. 19-20,
there is particular reference to the Jews and their law.
