Butterball1
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- Dec 31, 2020
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UNconditional is not my word, see your posts above. I've never used it.
If you're referring to Paul and "original sin" in Ro 5:18, your issue is with Paul, not me.
Ro 5:18 - "just as the result of one trespass was condemnation for all men. . ."
The wages of sin is death (Ro 6:23). And where there is no law, there is no sin. (Ro 5:13)
Yet death reigned from the time of Adam to the time of Moses, even over those who did not sin (by breaking any law) (Ro 5:14),
for there was no law to break.
Therefore, since death is the penalty for sin, those between Adam and Moses were involved in the sin of someone else; viz., Adam.
"Sin and death entered the world through one man, and in this way death came to all men because all sinned" (were held guilty of sin)--Ro 5:12.
You are ASSUMING the idea of all men being made sinners UNconditionally having inherited Adam's sin. The verse nor context remotely suggest men are Unconditionally made sinners nor UNconditionally made righteous. Romans 5:12 does not say "because all inherited Adam's sin" but says "because all have sinned". Have sinned shows personal culpability in having chosen to commit sin...commit a transgression. For nowhere does the Bible teach sin is just an idea or a substance passed from man to man but for one to be a sinner requires a choice in transgressing God's law, 1 John 3:4. Therefore it is impossible for one to be a sinner at conception or birth for no law has been transgressed by choice at conception/birth.
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