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Just a quick question for law proponents.

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Doesn't the Scripture show David was saved (righteous) inspite of his sin (violation of the law)? This isn't keeping the law nor is it salvation through or being maintained by keeping the law. No I'm not promoting sin.
 
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LittleLambofJesus

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tzadik

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Doesn't the Scripture show David was saved (righteous) inspite of his sin (violation of the law)? This isn't keeping the law nor is it salvation through or being maintained by keeping the law. No I'm not promoting sin.

Are you seriously proving that David wasn't saved by keeping the Torah?
I don't know how else to explain this to you....
David was saved WITHOUT having to keep a single commandment. Are we clear on that? ok. DAVID=SAVED BY GRACE THROUGH FAITH ALONE.

Alrighty NOW---David (the same David who is saved by grace and imputed righteousness from now until ETERNITY) that same David, AFTER salvation continue to KEEP the Torah of G-d. That same David said blessed is the man that delights in the Torah of G-d. Psalm 1:2. Blessed is the man who walks in the Torah of G-d. Psalm 119:1
Do you see...after he was "under grace" David continued keeping the Torah of G-d.
 
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tzadik

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But then if not following the law had no bearing salvation, or on the fact that they were more righteous than the followers of the law (would like an explanation on how that is), why do we need it?

The Torah of G-d teaches the people of G-d how to walk in the Ways of G-d. That might be the simplest explanation for keeping Torah. (that I can give)
 
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LittleLambofJesus

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The Torah of G-d teaches the people of G-d how to walk in the Ways of G-d. That might be the simplest explanation for keeping Torah. (that I can give)
Don't the RCs and Protestants keep the Torah? And what makes your sect so high and mighty compared to theirs?
 
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It's interesting to note that within the Masoretic text, the same word for "Torah" is used here in this verse:

"because Abraham obeyed My voice and kept My charge, My commandments, My statutes, and My laws." (Gen 26:5)

And yet, the set of laws contained within the collection of books commonly referred to as the "Torah" were not yet given at this point.

Are we to assume that Abraham followed that same set of laws which he had no knowledge of, or is it more likely that the word "Torah" does not necessarily refer to the set of laws given through Moses? What's going on here?
 
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tzadik

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Don't the RCs and Protestants keep the Torah? And what makes your sect so high and mighty compared to theirs?

This is not about high and mighty. I am not one to judge who is righteous before G-d and who is "righteouser". My job is simply to speak the truth of G-d in love. The Scriptures have taught me that His Word abides forever. Scriptures have taught me that The Torah of G-d is the Word of G-d. I have seen throughout Scripture how His Torah has been and continues to be a guide for believers, showing them how to walk in G-d's ways. Scriptures have also shown me that there are many "separations" and "divisions" (i.e. "church", "Christians", "Church age", "NT, "OT", "OT believers", "NT believers", rapture of the "church" vs "gathering of Israel") that do not have a true Scriptural basis.
I believe in One G-d. One Faith. One Baptism. One Spirit. One body. One Word. One Torah. One Seed. G-d doesn't change. His Word doesn't change.
 
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Is sin only the violation of the law? How?

13For until the law sin was in the world: but sin is not imputed when there is no law. Rom 5

16The law and the prophets were until John: since that time the kingdom of God is preached, and every man presseth into it. LK 16:16

4Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law. I John 3

For comparison please read sin is also lack of faith -

23And he that doubteth is damned if he eat, because he eateth not of faith: for whatsoever is not of faith is sin. Rom 14

Not only do we have the promise of God given through Jeremiah we also have -

19Wherefore then serveth the law? It was added because of transgressions, till the seed should come to whom the promise was made; and it was ordained by angels in the hand of a mediator. Gal 3

We are delivered from the law -

6But now we are delivered from the law, that being dead wherein we were held; that we should serve in newness of spirit, and not in the oldness of the letter. Rom 7

And we are told to throw the law out -

30Nevertheless what saith the scripture? Cast out the bondwoman and her son: for the son of the bondwoman shall not be heir with the son of the freewoman.

We have a choice -

4Christ is become of no effect unto you, whosoever of you are justified by the law; ye are fallen from grace. Gal 5
 
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The Torah of G-d teaches the people of G-d how to walk in the Ways of G-d. That might be the simplest explanation for keeping Torah. (that I can give)

But Jesus said:

But the Helper, the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in My name, He will teach you all things, and bring to your remembrance all things that I said to you. (John 14:26)

So if the Mosaic law is supposed to teach us, why did Jesus make no mention of this, where He said the Spirit is our teacher? Furthermore, if that is its only purpose, but we have a better teacher, why do we need the Mosaic law?
 
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tzadik

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Thank you! Finally someone else who sees that Torah does not automatically = LAW OF MOSES. The Word Torah itself is better defined from the Hebrew word as "teachings or instructions". The Torah of G-d is the Instructions of G-d. Do you see now how just that one tweak, CORRECT tweak changes so much??

Look at Exodus 16:28 for instance.
Exodus 16:28 said:
"Then the LORD said to Moses, "How long do you refuse to keep My commandments and My instructions?"
The word Torah here is correctly translated "instructions"

For many the Word Torah always means LAW of MOSES. This misconception produces even greater damage to the Word of G-d, when the Hebrew word Torah is translated to the greek "nomos" and this word nomos is ALWAYS translated as law in the "NT". So who knows if the word nomos (law) means instructions, law of moses, law of sin, law of death, gentile law, king's law...
yet everywhere many see the word "Law" they automatically assume it means Torah. This leads to grievous mistranslations, misinterpretations and twisting of the Word of G-d.
 
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You are desperatley trying to justify and prove obligation to the law for the Christian. We aren't under that covenant as testified to by Jesus (God) in Matthew, Mark and Luke and talked about in Hebrews as built on better promises which show a further difference between the covenants.

Your position is that of a renewed covenant not supported by Scripture.

You choose to ignore Gal 3:1-3 in you above statement.
 
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tzadik

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Look at what Ezekiel 36:26-27 says about the Spirit/Torah relationship...
Yeshua came to show the spirit of the Torah.
 
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Look at what Ezekiel 36:26-27 says about the Spirit/Torah relationship...

Yeshua came to show the spirit of the Torah.

As far as this goes, I can agree, and I believe that it is the law which Abraham followed, not having the written ordinances given through Moses, and the same law which Paul spoke of:

For the law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus has made me free from the law of sin and death. (Rom 8:2)

...to those [who are] without law, as without law (not being without law toward God, but under law toward Christ), that I might win those [who are] without law; (1 Cr 9:21)

Which is why:

...if you are led by the Spirit, you are not under the law. (Gal 5:18)

That is, the written law, not that there is no law for a believer.
 
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No but you are to retain salvation which really is salvation by the law (works) and not faith.

I think the real problem is your view of sin being only the violation of the law. You fail to see and understand that sin is dealt with differently under grace (the NT). I suggest close attention to Gal 5 especially 19-21 on this point.
 
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tzadik

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Interesting points. I agree with most of your argument...cept for the last one--
So what you're saying is that G-d had two different "walks" for believers...
One in obedience to His Instructions (Torah) as David did and spoke highly of throughout Psalms, as Moses did, as Zechariah and Elizabeth did (in Luke 1:6), and a different walk --without having to follow and obey the Instructions of G-d ----after His death...(because now we no longer have to "consciously keep Torah" because we do it "spiritually" by walking in the Spirit?)
 
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tzadik

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Again I never said that I maintain my salvation with keeping Torah. (and that if I didn't keep this next Sabbath holy..i'd lose my salvation)

And you are saying that when John (a believer) tells the believers in his letter that "sin is the transgression of the Law" he doesn't actually mean that sin is the violation of the law but something else....
Paul i believe also confirms this when he says...as a believer that he wouldn't know what "coveting" was if it wasn't for the Law of G-d showing him what is wrong and right.
 
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Who then needs grace or Jesus?
 
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tzadik

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For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to every one that believeth. Romans 10:4
There is quite a bit in that short statement.

Starting with the fact that you wrongly translated the verse

the Greek word "telos" does NOT mean end, but rather goal...as in Messiah is the goal of the Torah of righteousness to everyone that believes.

This complies with what Yeshua HIMSELF said in John 5:46-47
John 5:46-47 said:
"For if you believed Moses, you would believe Me, for he wrote about Me. But if you do not believe his writings, how will you believe My words?"
Yeshua is the GOAL of all of Torah. Even you agree with that statement.
Your statement disagrees not only with All of Scriptures and His own words, but also with Matthew 5:17.
Again..Yeshua is the GOAL of the Torah.
 
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