If it's so "commonly used", why didn't the King James translators translate it "slave"? I suspect there was a reason they didn't --- a divine reason.
Are you implying that God found the predatory and frequently unjust and inequitable 'hiring' practices of his Chosen People so embarassing that he inspired the KJV translators to use the English word 'servant' instead of 'slave' so as to cloud the issue? Because that's what it sounds like.
I am looking at the more relevant passages, and have bolded phrases that are significant
to me:
Exodus 21:7-11 (King James Version)
1Now these are the judgments which thou shalt set before them.
2If thou
buy an Hebrew servant, six years he shall serve: and in the seventh he shall go out free for nothing.
3If he came in by himself, he shall go out by himself: if he were married, then his wife shall go out with him.
4If his master have given him a wife, and she have born him sons or daughters;
the wife and her children shall be her master's, and he shall go out by himself.
5And if the servant shall plainly say, I love my master, my wife, and my children; I will not go out free:
6Then his master shall bring him unto the judges; he shall also bring him to the door, or unto the door post; and his master shall bore his ear through with an aul; and he shall serve him for ever.
7And if a man
sell his daughter to be a maidservant, she shall not go out as the menservants do.
8If she please not her master, who hath betrothed her to himself, then shall he let her be redeemed: to sell her unto a strange nation he shall have no power, seeing he hath dealt deceitfully with her.
9And if he have betrothed her unto his son, he shall deal with her after the manner of daughters.
10If he take him another wife; her food, her raiment, and her duty of marriage, shall he not diminish.
11And if he do not these three unto her, then shall she go out free without money.
The
Hebrew man and and the
man's daughter are both
bought, purchased, money has been paid for them. The daughter has been
sold by her father. Money has not been paid to these servants. We don't know who benefits from the sale of the manservant, but clearly, her father has received money for the daughter to be a maidservant.
And we have the information about menservants' families: if the man had a family when he was bought, he gets to take them with him when freed. But if the master has given him a wife, whom he subsequently has children by,
the master gets to keep the wife and children, which leads us to the nasty implication of the next verses, where by the love the servant has for his wife and children, he enters lifelong servitude in order to stay with them.
Now in the case of the daughter sold to be a 'maidservant', we find that she may have been 'betrothed' to the buyer or to his son, which sounds like a marriage, does it not? But it is not a marriage, as is made clear by the rest of the passage: she must be pleasing to her master, and if not, she may be redeemed (bought back), but not sold to a foriegner (oh, good). And finally, if he is crass enough to neither sell her back to her family (or someone 'not a foriegner'), nor feed and clothe her after taking
another 'wife',
then he has the option of
booting her out the door with no money.
I don't care how you twist these passages or insist that 'servant' is correct usage because sometimes,
for men,
not for women, the duration of servitude was fixed, the bottom line is that the situation described, particularly for the woman, is slavery. You can opine that the man is in fact an indentured servant, and possibly be righteous in doing so, except for that horrifying business of holding his family hostage to entice him to become a slave. But for the woman, it is bleak indeed - she must be pleasing, there is
no duration limit on her service. And in the end, she is put out on the street penniless - to go where and do what?
AV, you may be able to justify such practices with tales of how much better it was to be a 'servant' than to eke out a chancy living as a poor landless person of the time, and how strict the rules were governing treatment of such individuals - masters did have to guarantee to feed them, after all, though a servant who was starving to death wouldn't be of much use - but the fact remains that the laws and conditions described, especially in the case of the
maidservant (and I wonder about that delicate euphemism) have been called slavery by pretty much any culture that included slavery as a legal practice.
Calling it anything else will be seen as mere squirming around instead of accepting that the human condition then was not perfect, and the Hebrews had
slaves. Christians do themselves no favours when they indulge in semantical pretenses.