Is this a heresy?

[ToBeLoved]

Technically, the Bible teaches that the Father created "through Christ" and "by Christ". Somehow the Father had a part in it, too.

AND JESUS IS NOT DEAD!!! lol, that's what you get for speaking it instead of typing.

But it's true. The Father did not create everything which is what the previous poster said. I believe as you do that Jesus created all things through the Father.

 

[Albion]

Would that be a good example of a heresy, then??

 

[servantofyahshua]

Hi Jack. I didn't see anything that questioned that in servant's post... what struck you as contradictory to Jesus' Godhood?

Jesus and God are one and the same. I did not question this point.

"Every point in God has a many-to-one correspondence in Jesus."
A many-to-one mapping means that many points in the source space result in one and the same point in the result space. Hence, any point in God (for example, being available at any point of Earth at the same time) results in one and the same point in Jesus (being available at only ONE point of the Earth at a time). At that time Jesus was confined to space and time. He was obviously not omnipresent.

Of course, after the resurrection of Jesus, the situation has become different. Jesus is now omnipresent again. He is not confined to 5D anymore. Jesus and the everlasting Father are one and the same person.

Isaiah 9:6
6 For unto us a child is born, unto us a son is given: and the government shall be upon his shoulder: and his name shall be called Wonderful, Counsellor, The mighty God, The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace.

Pace in Jesus Christ

 

[StevenBelievin]

I understand Jesus to be the eternal Word of God thru whom God created the universe, and that He became the Son of God at His Incarnation. Is this heresy?

-----------------------------EDIT--------------------------------

I am in no way questioning the Trinity, nor the eternal and co-equal nature of Christ with the Father and Holy Spirit. Nor am I promoting any form of Adoptionism. The question I had (and have since found satisfactory answer in the wording of the Nicene Creed) was regarding whether the title "Son of God" has been eternally attributed to the Logos, or whether the Logos assumed the title "Son of God" at the Incarnation.

God bless;
Mike

That's an interesting question. The gospel of John says that the "Word became flesh and dwelt among us". "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God and was God." He was The Word before His incarnation, so I guess saying He became "the only begotten Son of God" when He was begotten by the Holy Spirit would not really be heresy..

 

[Historical Christianity]

A son of God was not an attribution of deity. Solomon was a son of God, as was Israel.

The Logos of the Johannine community was a well-established concept of Greek philosophy. The author of John 'hijacked' that philosophy, and said it was Jesus. All the Greeks considered Logos to be eternal, but the author of John said that this cosmic force appeared on earth in the form of a human body. Of course, people disagreed about how human that body was.

"Jesus and the everlasting Father are one and the same person." -- Call me a nitpicker. The doctrine of Homoiousia asserts that each member of the trinity is a separate person with a similar but not identical essence.

 

[ToBeLoved]

That's an interesting question. The gospel of John says that the "Word became flesh and dwelt among us". "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God and was God." He was The Word before His incarnation, so I guess saying He became "the only begotten Son of God" when He was begotten by the Holy Spirit would not really be heresy..

I think the Word and the Son of God are both describing Jesus Christ as who He is eternally.