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Is there an objective morality?

  • Yes

  • No


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Moral Orel

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If it is not possible to show that one is wrong...
Then it is unfalsifiable. "Can't be proven false" == "unfalsifiable"
...then everything it can ever tell us is the truth.
Then all unfalsifiable propositions are true. Even mutually exclusive propositions, apparently.

I have already explained it. If something is objective, then there is clear evidence which can be shown and rational people who are exposed to this evidence will agree.
That's wrong. There are things which are objective and yet clear evidence cannot be shown. That's what we're talking about with the interpretation of quantum physics. Your definition of objective is all wonky. Here's a simpler example. I'm thinking of a number right now. I can't show you any evidence of what that number really is. I could tell you something like, "The number I'm thinking of is 10", but that's a claim, that's not evidence. You have absolutely no way to test whether or not I'm lying. And yet, there is a fact of the matter as to what number I was thinking of. That fact is objective and no one but I will know for certain what that fact truly is.

It may not have been you, but I know there are some people who have used that argument.
Don't attribute things to me I never said.
Since I've been arguing that morality is subjective and NOT objective, I think it's quite clear that I also have the position that there can't possibly be an expert in morality.
I know that's your position. Now support it.
How do you think there could be an expert in something subjective?

As such, it is the position of the moral objectivists who must show that an expert in morality can exist.
No shifting the burden of proof. You claimed that morality can't have experts, it's on you to show they can't exist.
I pointed them out to explain why other people in the same culture and society have the same or similar moral views.

As I've said, I pointed it out to show why groups of people share similar moral views. There are plenty of people who think that the fact that I share similar moral views to my neighbors proves that morality is objective. My position is that the shared moral views are easily explainable by a shared culture and society. Do you disagree?
Okay, so you made a point to mention it to get out in front of an argument for a position I don't hold. No reason then.
 
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stevevw

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What kind of an outside source could morality be grounded in, that is not a sentient being?
First morality cannot be grounded in humans as they are fallible and subject to many influences that can cause them to skew what is the truth when it comes to morality. Morality has to be grounded in something outside humans.

Thats why a transcendent being like God is a good source. But we can also ground morality in truths like laws or realism which is about how humans live morality outside their personal views. This can be evidenced by logical arguements which are also a form of grounding.

What you are describing are various perceptions of truth, not the truth.
You said
Truth is what is aligned with reality.
I am saying that a persons reality is not always a good way to determine the truth as reality can be affected by many things.

People who believe in God are no more righteous in their behavior than those who do not.
That doesnt make sense. If a religion forbids drugs, or sexual prominsquity then this must have an influence on behaviour compared to people who think these things are OK to do. In fact studies have shown that religious people are more moral in their behaviour because they are constantly being remined to keep Gods moral laws.

Do you really believe there is one moral law outside people that all people have agreed to follow?
I never said there was 1 moral law that everyone has agreed to follow. I said there was an objective moral law that we all know of. Doesnt mean we have to agree with it for various reasons.

Again there is a big difference between seeking an unknown truth vs debating what you already believe to be true. Care to try again?
It doesnt matter because you still have to be Honest with the other person about what you know to be true as they don't know. The point is Honesty and TRuth will come up in some way as important moral values in all debates/discussions because people have different ideas about things and are seeking the truth in debates.

Again; I am convinced I already know the truth of this matter, as are you.
If thats the case then you can never learn anything new. You may be convinced that you already know the truth but how do you know you are not wrong and need to be open to learning new information. You cannot know everything there is to know about every topic.
Nobody in this conversation is actually looking for the truth.
Are you sure. You have asked questions like you don't know the answer or want to learn about something. You have made statements like you don't know the truth ie
Ken said
What kind of an outside source could morality be grounded in, that is not a sentient being?

You have made statements that I can challenge and show are wrong so despite you claiming you already know the truth the other person can say you are wrong and even support that with facts. So if thats the case it opens the door for people to make up stuff, lie and misrepresent others thus be dishonest because they want to win the debate.

Here you make a claim that can be proven wrong, how do I know you just made this wrong claim on purpose to discredit my arguemnet.
Ken said

People who believe in God are no more righteous in their behavior than those who do not.
This happens all the time. I could go back through our debate and find dozens of examples where you act like you don't know the truth even of your own position. Our debate is intertwinned with claims and counterclaims that can be wrong and distortions of truth. That is just how humans interact.

What your also forgetting is that you may know the truth of your own position but other people can twist and misrepresent your position to win the debate as well. Its not all in your hands and therefore Honesty and TRuth are needed as the stand alone moral rules to ensure we can at least know we have some guide to refer to in debates and discussions seeking the truth.

But if your unhappy with that explanation then all you have to do is find a debate/discussion where people don't think they know the truth and are seeking the truth and you will have your example of how Honesty/Truth is a moral law in that debate/discussion.

What we are doing has nothing to do with morality; there are no moral or immoral acts involved in this discussion.
If there is a truth to be found then there is a possibility that people will distort or misrepresent that truth and I think applies to our debate as explained above.

Nevertheless luckily this is not just about us but about moral values that apply generally to every debate/discussion seeking truth. Like I said if there is a possibility for people to lie or misrepresent the other persons arguements (thats why there are such things as logical fallacies) then its going to happen and theerfore we cannot deny or reject Honesty and Truth as moral values in these debates/discussions.

By definition, if facts are not involved, it can’t be objective.
There you go again. Its like a bait and switch. I just mention that moral facts are different to scientific facts and you say if facts are not involved then it cannot be objective. What facts are you talking about.
 
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Kylie

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Then it is unfalsifiable. "Can't be proven false" == "unfalsifiable"

That's your problem, since you were the one who brought it up in post 552 when you said, "There may not be any possible way to determine which interpretation of quantum mechanics is right." So you're the one saying it could be unfalsifiable, not me.

Then all unfalsifiable propositions are true. Even mutually exclusive propositions, apparently.

Let me rephrase it then. All it can ever tell us will be consistent with reality. And if we used it to make a prediction, it will be shown to be true. Not quite the same as unfalsifiable things like, "There's an invisible, intangible, silent elephant in your living room that produces no smell or any other indication of its existence."

That's wrong. There are things which are objective and yet clear evidence cannot be shown. That's what we're talking about with the interpretation of quantum physics. Your definition of objective is all wonky. Here's a simpler example. I'm thinking of a number right now. I can't show you any evidence of what that number really is. I could tell you something like, "The number I'm thinking of is 10", but that's a claim, that's not evidence. You have absolutely no way to test whether or not I'm lying. And yet, there is a fact of the matter as to what number I was thinking of. That fact is objective and no one but I will know for certain what that fact truly is.

Actually, that claim would be one of those unfalsifiable things, wouldn't it?

I know that's your position. Now support it.

So you're asking me to prove a negative?

No shifting the burden of proof. You claimed that morality can't have experts, it's on you to show they can't exist.

Again, you are asking me to prove a negative.
 
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o_mlly

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I don't know that I'd phrase it like that.
Yes, I agree that all matters of "taste" are necessarily subjective, that is fully dependent on the subject for their truth value.

However, unlike matter of "taste", the "objective vs. subjective" issues can be external to the subject and be factual in nature. If the issue is factual then there exist widely recognized criteria and methods to determine whether a claim is true or false, no?
 
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Moral Orel

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That's your problem, since you were the one who brought it up in post 552 when you said, "There may not be any possible way to determine which interpretation of quantum mechanics is right." So you're the one saying it could be unfalsifiable, not me.
I don't have a problem with the proposition being unfalsifiable. That's the point of the analogy. The issue is that you'll jump from:
If it is not possible to show that one is wrong
to:
Who's saying they are unfalsifiable? We're talking about what happens if neither of them is falsified, and that's a very different thing to being unfalsifiable.
We are not talking about "what happens if neither of them is falsified".
We are talking about what happens "if it is not possible to show that one is" false.

Let me rephrase it then. All it can ever tell us will be consistent with reality. And if we used it to make a prediction, it will be shown to be true. Not quite the same as unfalsifiable things like, "There's an invisible, intangible, silent elephant in your living room that produces no smell or any other indication of its existence."
No, it's the same. Either there is such an elephant, or there is not. One of those propositions is an objective fact. Every test you can perform will be consistent with the existence of such an elephant, so it must be objectively true that there is such an elephant. This is where your argumentation has taken you.

Actually, that claim would be one of those unfalsifiable things, wouldn't it?
Yep. And yet, it's an objective fact which I know, but cannot be demonstrated.

So you're asking me to prove a negative?
Again, you are asking me to prove a negative.
Yep. You made a claim, so you have the burden to prove that claim. If you cannot, then you haven't proved the premises of your argument. If you cannot prove the premises of your argument, then you haven't shown your argument to be sound. Can you support all of the premises of your argument, or is there no reason to believe it is sound?
 
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stevevw

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And all of those issues come about because of subjective perceptions that can't be verified objectively.

Ask a person what they witnessed when the incident took place, and you can get a different answer from everyone, because how are they going to verify their perceptions? It's not like they can experience the incident again.

But if you get a video recording of the incident, suddenly it becomes a lot more objective, and it becomes possible to verify what happened. This happens because we are removing the subjectivity of the witness's experience.
But the point is it’s an objective fact that the incident happened and happened a particular way. So we can get some measurements or do some tests to find out what happened. Even eye witness accounts can be factual enough to be used in court and convict someone to a life in prison.

But what if it was personal views of nature where the object is physically there to be measured scientifically. People can still have subjective views of this like a flat earth and yet we can determine the objective facts about that natural object. The point is people can still have subjective views about verifiable objective facts.

There's no actual evidence for that idea though, is there.
There actually are some theories that support this in quantum physics. Basically if there are no observers then there would be no way to verify the physical world. You cannot say that the physical world would be there if there were no observers because you would need an observer to verify this.

We could be in some simulation and physical reality only seems real to our senses because we have been programmed to be that way. When the program is switch off so is all so called reality. Can you definitely say the physical world would be there if there was no observers.

I don't recall ever making that claim. Can you show me where I did?
Its not about making the claim but once you buy into a debate about God and talk about Him like he is real then you have to be open to any arguemnets about God as well. IE

Kylie said #203
Even granting that God exists, why is morality objective to him?
#445
If God has a certain morality, then it doesn't follow that such a morality is objective just because we are made in his image.

That's assuming God exists, and that's a big IF there.
That’s another debate. You are happy to entertain the idea of Gods morality when you make arguments against God. So I am making an argument why it makes sense for objective morality to come from God.

Put it this way it's not a case of proving if God exists but proving if objective morality exists because if objective morality exists then God exists or at least some transcendental being because objective morality has to come from outside humans yet be grounded in something that understands humans and reasoning.

So what?
You are the one who claimed "...evolution does not explain why we ought to be good..." as though there actually IS an "ought" in there. You have not shown that there's any reason to believe that there's an "ought".
You claimed that evolution was a viable account for morality when you claimed that there were other reasons why humans are morally good such as we don’t steal and kill to ensure society is stable.

I am saying that evolution can only explain how morality came about but it doesn’t explain why the moral behaviours we have are right or wrong. Thus there is no ‘ought’ in the evolutionary explanation for morality so therefore it’s not a valid account for morality.

As I have said several times now, we can't reach a conclusion on the morality of honesty just on the basis that it's honesty.
Let’s stick to specific examples as this is the only way to verify whether there are moral objectives. The specific example is whether you and I can have a debate seeking the truth of a matter without the moral values of Honesty and Truth. If we can’t then Honesty and Truth stand independent of ourselves or any other human in debates as moral laws when seeking the truth of a matter.


In our debate you have implicitly prescribed moral duties such as Honesty and Truth by expecting me to not lie and misrepresent your arguments when you make certain claims and question what I have said as to whether it is true or not. All this will only make any sense if Honesty and Truth stand as independent moral laws regardless of personal opinions.

So the question is can us or anyone have this kind of debate without Honesty of Truth values. If so can you explain how they can? If you can’t explain this then anyone having a debate seeking the truth of a matter will be bound by these values in debates seeking the Truth regardless of their subjective opinions making Honesty and Truth independent moral laws and thus objective.

Again, any lived experience is a SUBJECTIVE thing.
Not if it can be verified that the moral value cannot be denied by subjective opinion. It then becomes similar to a law that is not open to personal views because the moral values are needed to enable the specific interaction.

Without those moral values human interactions like debates on truth are impossible. So it’s like the law of gravity where we cannot defy gravity or deny it by subjective views.

If you have to rely on "believe intuitively," then what you're talking about is not objective.
Why not. It is intuition that causes us to believe the physical world is real and not some simulation. Otherwise how else can be justified that what we sense is real. Science cannot tell us as science may also be some artificial tool we have been programmed with to make us believe that we live our reality. Yet we use our intuition on a daily basis when we experience the world as it is.

The passerby who steps in and tries to stop the abuser does so because their morality tells them it is wrong. The abuser's morality tells them that it is acceptable to abuse the child. This is exactly what we'd expect to see from subjective, not objective morality.
No quite the opposite would be the case it it was subjective morality. As subjective morality is only about the subjects personal moral views then they cannot step in and stop someone else with a different subjective moral view or even think its really wrong because subjective morality is only about different moral views and nothing about any view being ultimately wrong outside the person (subject).

Stepping in or thinking another persons moral view and actiosnare wrong is actually taking an objective position as you are saying not only are my moral views right for me but for everyone. Thats why people with subjective moral views cannot live out their moral position in reality as its impossible to apply in the real world. Thats why they claim one thing (subjectivity) but actually live another reality (objectivity).

Intuition is not objective.
When it comes to reality, whats real, lived moral experience or lived reality of the physical world intuition is self-evident as a measure of reality. Thats because we act like its real and therefore it speaks for itself. In fact people misunderstand intuition. It is actually a process of subconsciously calling upon our lived experiences that gives us evidence of what we can trust as real because we have already tested it through our experiences.

Intuition
Moral values and duties are simply self-evidence and intuitive.

If we see a child getting tortured, we don’t think that is how other people see the world and we should move on. No, we all think that must be stopped and justice must be done.
But why, because the idea of moral facts and duties are real and objective, is self-evident and is our intuitive starting point.


This should also be obvious because we do this with every other topic.

For example, we do not assume scepticism for our experience of the physical world unless we are given reason to. It is possible you are a butterfly dreaming you are human but there’s no good evidence to suggest that.

So why accept a skeptical attack on intuition if there is no evidence to support it.
Possibility is not probability likewise we do not doubt the intuitive trust of our 5 senses unless we have a good reason to think that one of them has failed us.

So why should we doubt intuitive sense of moral facts unless we are given good reason by moral non-realist to do so. The burden is on the skeptic who wants to argue moral realism is false.


Unless they can give us a good reason that female mutiliation is not objectively wrong that our moral intuitions should be doubted their argument is dead in the water.
The skeptic has to mount an argument, not just assume the moral realist must bear the burden of proof and lack any reason to hold to their position.


1.2 Self-evidence
The notion of a self-evident proposition is a term of art in intuitionist thought, and needs to be distinguished from certain common sense understandings with which it may easily be conflated. The first thing to note is that a self-evident proposition is not the same as an obvious truth. To begin with, obviousness is relative to certain individuals or groups. What is obvious to you may not be obvious to me. But self-evidence is not relative in this way. Although a proposition may be evident to one person but not to another, it could not be self-evident to one person, but not to another. A proposition is just self-evident, not self-evident to someone.
Intuitionism in Ethics (Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy)

Intuitions are used as Evidence in Philosophy
Emotions are actually not dumb responses that always need to be ignored or even corrected by rational faculties. They are appraisals of what you have just experienced or thought of – in this sense, they are also a form of information processing. Intuition or gut feelings are also the result of a lot of processing that happens in the brain.
Many take the division between analytic and intuitive thinking to mean that the two types of processing (or “thinking styles”) are opposites, working in a see-saw manner. However, a recent meta-analysis has shown that analytic and intuitive thinking are typically not correlated and could happen at the same time.

Is it rational to trust your gut feelings? A neuroscientist explains[/Quote][/quote]
 
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stevevw

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No, much of Human behaviour is caused by genes. Dawkins described how this works in his book "The Extended Phenotype." If there were Humans who did not act like survival was something to strive for, then they would have not tried to survive and the genes for such behaviour would have died out with them. Natural selection favours those who try to stay alive as much as possible.
Aside that there is contrary evidence for the extended phenotype which is another debate there is no genes for behaviour. Behaviour is socially or culturally taught and passed on. But this still misses the point.

Even if moral behaviour is explained by the extended phenotype it still only accounts for how we obtained morality. It doesn’t explain why something is morally wrong. So we may evolve behaviours that cause us to treat fellow humans kindly so we survive and don’t wipe each other out. But so what, who said not wiping out humans is a morally good thing under evolution.

As I just said, evolution and natural selection can account for behaviour.
This still says nothing about why certain behaviour is morally wrong. Why we ought to behave a certain way to be morally good. It only explains how we can survive which may involve morlaly bad behaviours as well.

You seem to be fundamentally misunderstanding evolution.
From an evolutionary point of view, there is no objective moral right and wrong in just the same way that there is no objectively best body shape.
Actually this is not verified. It could be that God used evolution and we have come to know the objective morals God planted in us like moral laws as time has gone by. There is nothing in evolution that says there are no objective morals. Even atheists have come up with objective moral theories like Sam Harris's Moral Landscape that uses Human Wellbeing as the scientific grounding for what is morally right and wrong.

You have not shown that a proscriptive explanation is required.
Actually its prescriptive as in what we ought to do its self evident that a prescriptive explanation is required because morals are about what we ought to do which is prescriptive. So the evolutionary explanation is only descriptive in telling us how we come to know morality (it evolved). But it says nothing about why we ought to follow those evolve morals. Evolution is about survival and survival is not always about what is morally good.

Once again, lived experiences are subjective, not objective.
Lived experience cannot be subjective as it’s a reaction or act in response to a moral situation. It overrides our subjective views by causing us to act a certain way despite our subjective views and often in contradiction to our subjective views.

For example a person could claim that they love Chillies, they are not hot and he can eat them like their ice-cream. But after one chillies he spits it out and says they are too spicy hot and horrible. The same for morality. A person can claim that it’s OK for people to have affairs as we are all consenting adults. But then reacts like their partner has done something morally wrong when they caught them having an affair.

The truth of morality is in the lived moral experience. Because peoples reactions are often against what they subjective view and that a specific moral response is almost programmed into us this shows its independent from the subject and is fixed like a law thus objective.
 
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Ken-1122

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When I say find the truth I also mean establishing the truth of a matter. So even if people are trying to convince someone of their truth people will still question whether you’re being honest and not just making your truth up. In fact it would be hard to prove your truth without an independent measuring stick. So Honesty and Truth are still needed.
If morality were objective, there would be an independent measuring stick. The fact that there is not proves it is subjective
Well yes it would be needed because being a devil’s advocate is a tactic to seek the truth. You are questioning a person or proposition as though it’s false to clarify so you can ensure the truth. So being a devil’s advocate would be useless if there was no Honesty and Truth values to guide things along and measure what is the truth or not.
Again; the person playing the devils advocate is not being truthful. But this is not wrong because it is not a moral issue, it is a logical issue
But heres the point your missing the person walking by doesnt know for what reason the child or women is being abused. They just see the abuse taking place and they know its wrong regardless of knowing why the abuse is happening. They intuitively know it is wrong to abuse a child or women regardless of the reason or personal opinion behind it.
I disagree! Corporal punishment is not seen as wrong everywhere, there are many places and cultures where it is perfectly acceptable
 
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Kylie

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Yes, I agree that all matters of "taste" are necessarily subjective, that is fully dependent on the subject for their truth value.

However, unlike matter of "taste", the "objective vs. subjective" issues can be external to the subject and be factual in nature. If the issue is factual then there exist widely recognized criteria and methods to determine whether a claim is true or false, no?

I'd say the subjective issues are matters of taste, and the objective issues are matters of fact.

When dealing with scientific enquiry, it's very hard if not impossible to prove something is absolutely true (this page explains it, any discussion of this would derail the thread so I won't enter into a discussion about it here), but it is very easy to prove something false. Objective issues are falsifiable in this way; that is, there exists some conceivable result that would prove an idea false (even if that result never actually occurs, we could still define what kind of result it would be). But this would certainly apply to objective issues.

However, subjective issues are not falsifiable in this way. I believe that it's okay to put pineapple on pizza. I can't prove that my opinion on this is right, but no one can prove to me that my opinion about it is wrong either.
 
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Kylie

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The issue is that you'll jump from:

to:

We are not talking about "what happens if neither of them is falsified".
We are talking about what happens "if it is not possible to show that one is" false.

If we can't show that either one is false, then both of them are going to have to accurately describe what happens, aren't they?

Which is exactly what I said in post 583: "All it can ever tell us will be consistent with reality. And if we used it to make a prediction, it will be shown to be true."

No, it's the same. Either there is such an elephant, or there is not. One of those propositions is an objective fact. Every test you can perform will be consistent with the existence of such an elephant, so it must be objectively true that there is such an elephant. This is where your argumentation has taken you.

Remember, I specified that it was "an invisible, intangible, silent elephant in your living room that produces no smell or any other indication of its existence."

So the two options are:

  1. There is no elephant.
  2. There is an invisible, intangible, silent elephant in your living room that produces no smell or any other indication of its existence.
It is not possible to show that either one of them is false, and we can assume either is true and use that to get results that are in complete agreement with reality.

Yep. And yet, it's an objective fact which I know, but cannot be demonstrated.

Well, I suppose that since thoughts can be detected, it's possible that a sufficiently sensitive measurement and a sufficiently detailed understanding of the brain could allow an outside observer to measure your thought processes and reconstruct what you were thinking of, so it is, at least in principle, demonstrable. The following are some links to studies done on reconstructing images from brain scans.

Deep image reconstruction from human brain activity
Reconstructing faces from fMRI patterns using deep generative neural networks | Communications Biology

Yep. You made a claim, so you have the burden to prove that claim. If you cannot, then you haven't proved the premises of your argument. If you cannot prove the premises of your argument, then you haven't shown your argument to be sound. Can you support all of the premises of your argument, or is there no reason to believe it is sound?

I've already presented my reasoning for concluding that morality is subjective, not objective.
 
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Kylie

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But the point is it’s an objective fact that the incident happened and happened a particular way. So we can get some measurements or do some tests to find out what happened. Even eye witness accounts can be factual enough to be used in court and convict someone to a life in prison.

I think you missed the bit where I said that you got a different answer from everyone. If the eyewitness accounts were inconsistent with each other, they will not lead to a conviction.

But what if it was personal views of nature where the object is physically there to be measured scientifically. People can still have subjective views of this like a flat earth and yet we can determine the objective facts about that natural object. The point is people can still have subjective views about verifiable objective facts.

Irrelevant. If a person has an opinion about something and real world evidence contradicts their opinion, then they need to change their opinion. If they do not, then they are not a rational person.

There actually are some theories that support this in quantum physics. Basically if there are no observers then there would be no way to verify the physical world. You cannot say that the physical world would be there if there were no observers because you would need an observer to verify this.

We could be in some simulation and physical reality only seems real to our senses because we have been programmed to be that way. When the program is switch off so is all so called reality. Can you definitely say the physical world would be there if there was no observers.

Citation required.

Its not about making the claim but once you buy into a debate about God and talk about Him like he is real then you have to be open to any arguemnets about God as well. IE

Kylie said #203
Even granting that God exists, why is morality objective to him?
#445
If God has a certain morality, then it doesn't follow that such a morality is objective just because we are made in his image.

Yeah, if. IF. That's a pretty big IF there.

Doesn't mean I'm going to assume God exists and is the source of morality for all my arguments about morality.

That’s another debate. You are happy to entertain the idea of Gods morality when you make arguments against God. So I am making an argument why it makes sense for objective morality to come from God.

Put it this way it's not a case of proving if God exists but proving if objective morality exists because if objective morality exists then God exists or at least some transcendental being because objective morality has to come from outside humans yet be grounded in something that understands humans and reasoning.

Just because I entertain the possibility of God in some as a hypothetical exercise, doesn't mean I'm going to take the existence of God as a premise in every argument for or against a certain view of morality.

You claimed that evolution was a viable account for morality when you claimed that there were other reasons why humans are morally good such as we don’t steal and kill to ensure society is stable.

I am saying that evolution can only explain how morality came about but it doesn’t explain why the moral behaviours we have are right or wrong. Thus there is no ‘ought’ in the evolutionary explanation for morality so therefore it’s not a valid account for morality.

You seem to misunderstand my position.

Since I take morality to be subjective, there is no "right" or "wrong" as you speak of them.

Let’s stick to specific examples as this is the only way to verify whether there are moral objectives. The specific example is whether you and I can have a debate seeking the truth of a matter without the moral values of Honesty and Truth. If we can’t then Honesty and Truth stand independent of ourselves or any other human in debates as moral laws when seeking the truth of a matter.

In our debate you have implicitly prescribed moral duties such as Honesty and Truth by expecting me to not lie and misrepresent your arguments when you make certain claims and question what I have said as to whether it is true or not. All this will only make any sense if Honesty and Truth stand as independent moral laws regardless of personal opinions.

So the question is can us or anyone have this kind of debate without Honesty of Truth values. If so can you explain how they can? If you can’t explain this then anyone having a debate seeking the truth of a matter will be bound by these values in debates seeking the Truth regardless of their subjective opinions making Honesty and Truth independent moral laws and thus objective.

The fact that honesty makes a debate like this easier to conduct does not mean honesty has some moral value. Efficiency, yes. Morality, no.

Not if it can be verified that the moral value cannot be denied by subjective opinion. It then becomes similar to a law that is not open to personal views because the moral values are needed to enable the specific interaction.

Without those moral values human interactions like debates on truth are impossible. So it’s like the law of gravity where we cannot defy gravity or deny it by subjective views.

So your argument is that morality isn't subjective if we can show that it's not subjective?

Why not. It is intuition that causes us to believe the physical world is real and not some simulation. Otherwise how else can be justified that what we sense is real. Science cannot tell us as science may also be some artificial tool we have been programmed with to make us believe that we live our reality. Yet we use our intuition on a daily basis when we experience the world as it is.

because intuition is an inherently unreliable way of making determinations about the real world. It's intuition that had people thinking that a heavy object falls faster than a light one. It was intuition that had people believing a heliocentric universe.

No quite the opposite would be the case it it was subjective morality. As subjective morality is only about the subjects personal moral views then they cannot step in and stop someone else with a different subjective moral view or even think its really wrong because subjective morality is only about different moral views and nothing about any view being ultimately wrong outside the person (subject).

Stepping in or thinking another persons moral view and actiosnare wrong is actually taking an objective position as you are saying not only are my moral views right for me but for everyone. Thats why people with subjective moral views cannot live out their moral position in reality as its impossible to apply in the real world. Thats why they claim one thing (subjectivity) but actually live another reality (objectivity).

No, that's not true. Just because I know my morality is subjective doesn't mean I wouldn't step in to prevent the abuser from causing harm. Why do you think that people who hold to a subjective view of morality will say, "I think that person abusing the child is wrong, but it would be wrong of me to stop them because they obviously believe that committing the abuse is morally good"?

I see someone being abused, I will try to stop it because I know that I would want someone to stop the abuser if they were abusing me.

When it comes to reality, whats real, lived moral experience or lived reality of the physical world intuition is self-evident as a measure of reality.

If your argument consists of just, "But it's OBVIOUS," then you don't have much of an argument.

Thats because we act like its real and therefore it speaks for itself.

So what? I've said many times now that just because people act like their subjective opinion is objective fact, it doesn't actually make it an objective fact.

In fact people misunderstand intuition. It is actually a process of subconsciously calling upon our lived experiences that gives us evidence of what we can trust as real because we have already tested it through our experiences.

Intuition
Moral values and duties are simply self-evidence and intuitive.

If we see a child getting tortured, we don’t think that is how other people see the world and we should move on. No, we all think that must be stopped and justice must be done.
But why, because the idea of moral facts and duties are real and objective, is self-evident and is our intuitive starting point.

No. It's because humans generally have this thing called "empathy" which means we can imagine ourselves in the place of another person. And since I know I would want someone to step and help me if I was being tortured, I reach the conclusion that the person I see being tortured would hold a similar wish.


This should also be obvious because we do this with every other topic.
For example, we do not assume scepticism for our experience of the physical world unless we are given reason to. It is possible you are a butterfly dreaming you are human but there’s no good evidence to suggest that.

So why accept a skeptical attack on intuition if there is no evidence to support it.
Possibility is not probability likewise we do not doubt the intuitive trust of our 5 senses unless we have a good reason to think that one of them has failed us.

We have a huge amount of evidence that our senses are unreliable.
 
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Kylie

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Aside that there is contrary evidence for the extended phenotype which is another debate there is no genes for behaviour. Behaviour is socially or culturally taught and passed on. But this still misses the point.

Tell that to the beavers who instinctively carry out the behaviour of dam building even when they have been raised in isolation never been exposed to dams or dam building.

Even if moral behaviour is explained by the extended phenotype it still only accounts for how we obtained morality. It doesn’t explain why something is morally wrong. So we may evolve behaviours that cause us to treat fellow humans kindly so we survive and don’t wipe each other out. But so what, who said not wiping out humans is a morally good thing under evolution.

You are assuming that it is objectively right or wrong. I've been very clear that I do not agree with that position.

This still says nothing about why certain behaviour is morally wrong. Why we ought to behave a certain way to be morally good. It only explains how we can survive which may involve morlaly bad behaviours as well.

And we certainly never see any behaviours that are generally viewed as morally bad being committed by people who only seek to improve their own personal gain, do we? Absolutely not!

Actually this is not verified. It could be that God used evolution and we have come to know the objective morals God planted in us like moral laws as time has gone by.

Since subjectivity is what you get when someone just declares something to be the case, then even if there was a God who said, "This is morally good, that is morally bad," then they would still be subjective laws of morality.

There is nothing in evolution that says there are no objective morals.

I never said there was.

All I've said is that evolution can explain why we have certain moral views in a way that does not require objective morals to exist.

Even atheists have come up with objective moral theories like Sam Harris's Moral Landscape that uses Human Wellbeing as the scientific grounding for what is morally right and wrong.

So what? You think I'm just going to jump on board with their ideas because I, like them, am an athiest?

Actually its prescriptive as in what we ought to do its self evident that a prescriptive explanation is required because morals are about what we ought to do which is prescriptive. So the evolutionary explanation is only descriptive in telling us how we come to know morality (it evolved). But it says nothing about why we ought to follow those evolve morals. Evolution is about survival and survival is not always about what is morally good.

But all too often it is. We see vampire bats sharing food to aid in the survival of others - others who, in the future, may return the favour and share food back when it is needed. And given that we humans live in complex social groups and require the efforts of others (how many people could live a solitary, self-sufficient lifestyle, after all?), developing a system of morality to make living in those social groups easier is certainly going to make survival easier, isn't it?

Lived experience cannot be subjective as it’s a reaction or act in response to a moral situation. It overrides our subjective views by causing us to act a certain way despite our subjective views and often in contradiction to our subjective views.

This is circular reasoning. If morality is subjective, then our reaction to it is indeed subjective, and the lived reaction to it is subjective.

For example a person could claim that they love Chillies, they are not hot and he can eat them like their ice-cream. But after one chillies he spits it out and says they are too spicy hot and horrible. The same for morality. A person can claim that it’s OK for people to have affairs as we are all consenting adults. But then reacts like their partner has done something morally wrong when they caught them having an affair.

How many times have I said that people acting like their subjective opinion is objective doesn't actually make it objective? So many times I've lost count. Please don't make me say it again.

The truth of morality is in the lived moral experience. Because peoples reactions are often against what they subjective view and that a specific moral response is almost programmed into us this shows its independent from the subject and is fixed like a law thus objective.

Like I said, please don't make me say it again.
 
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TheWhat?

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Just kind of a side note on what I think is a major misinterpretation of Hume, who I think is relatively famous for attributing morality to human preferences:

Consider a pain response: subjective or objective? I'd say the experience is subjective, but you have no choice in the matter -- unless you can will to spontaneously experience pain without any other cause, something is imposing itself on your biochemistry to produce the experience.

This is what I think is missed in Hume's use of preference. It's not that he's pushing for a purely subjective morality defined by preferences like those for flavors or foods, etc. His arguments are intended to point out that you are going to perceive moral issues because of preferences you have no control over. In all likelihood you cannot choose to prefer to be violently murdered, and if you did so choose to be murdered that would necessarily be something other. That's why he emphasizes the contradiction between reason and preference -- we can moralize using reason to conclusions that we have no choice but to decry as immoral, and it has nothing to do with a choice that is subject to our control. Bear in mind, the subjective/objective dichotomy that resembles what we have today was not so emphasized until Kant.

That said, I'm inclined to interpret experienced "wrongs" as not so dissimilar to pain responses, which can be empirically studied, scientifically. That these things can be interpreted as objective matters of fact makes complete sense given that Hume was a moral sense theorist, which is nonsense unless you're convinced that there exists something objective to be perceived with the senses.

Further, there may not be such a huge distinction between subjective and objective morality when considering evolution as a driving force behind the formation of moral systems. It's through an arguably evolutionary process that subjective perspectives can and do approach or approximate objective norms. We can see this in traffic laws around the globe: while they differ between regions, their effectiveness being governed in part by an objective reality results in similarity, not wild, nonsensical chaotic differences.
 
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zippy2006

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Either disagreement proves subjectivity, or it does not. Since we know that there are objective things without universal consensus, your proposition that disagreement proves subjectivity fails. Sorry.

Kylie's theory that objectivity is a function of consensus is a non-position in science and epistemology. Nevertheless, I doubt the dead horse will ever be left in peace. I'm glad I left off that discussion on page 17:

As noted earlier, difficult problems yield disagreement, but that doesn't make them non-objective.
If there is an objectively true solution to these problems, no matter how difficult, then all rational people will agree to it once it is shown.

Again, I said RATIONAL people.
Oh, right, you were singling out the “rational” people. How could I have missed that. I should have known that we don’t have to worry about all those irrational people. And it’s always easy to know who’s who, right? Let me guess: the rational people agree with you and the irrational people disagree with you?

The irony is that there is a consensus among the rational people (scientific-academic) that objectivity is not based on consensus.
 
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essentialsaltes

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This is what I think is missed in Hume's use of preference. It's not that he's pushing for a purely subjective morality defined by preferences like those for flavors or foods, etc.

Nobody's pushing for anything. We're trying to determine the nature of morality - objective or subjective.

His arguments are intended to point out that you are going to perceive moral issues because of preferences you have no control over.

I have no control over my disgust of Brussels Sprouts. I have no control over my disgust of people who kick a cat for no reason.

I think your analogy with pain is also relevant. We have no choice but to feel these ways.

But this hardly makes them objective, since different people experience them in different ways, and they have no choice over them either. Brussels sprouts, gay marriages. Some people like them, other people are grossed out.
 
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TheWhat?

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Nobody's pushing for anything. We're trying to determine the nature of morality - objective or subjective.



I have no control over my disgust of Brussels Sprouts. I have no control over my disgust of people who kick a cat for no reason.

I think your analogy with pain is also relevant. We have no choice but to feel these ways.

But this hardly makes them objective, since different people experience them in different ways, and they have no choice over them either. Brussels sprouts, gay marriages. Some people like them, other people are grossed out.

Some people can't feel pain. That doesn't render pain response to be a matter of opinion rather than fact, else medical science would not be able to progress beyond a nonsensical mess like that of modern moral philosophy in the West. This just exposes how polarized and charged the entire subject is. We're not incentivized enough, currently, to even search for a consensus.
 
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essentialsaltes

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Some people can't feel pain.

Right, they also have no choice in the matter.

People's reactions to injuries, foodstuffs, and moral questions differ from person to person.
 
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Kylie

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Kylie's theory that objectivity is a function of consensus is a non-position in science and epistemology. Nevertheless, I doubt the dead horse will ever be left in peace. I'm glad I left off that discussion on page 17:



The irony is that there is a consensus among the rational people (scientific-academic) that objectivity is not based on consensus.

You seem to misunderstand my position. Either that or you are misrepresenting it.

Consensus doesn't result in objectivity.

Objectivity results in consensus (at least in principle).
 
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zippy2006

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You seem to misunderstand my position. Either that or you are misrepresenting it.

Consensus doesn't result in objectivity.

Objectivity results in consensus (at least in principle).

Sure, but the softer claim that consensus is a necessary condition of objectivity falls into the same problems.

Further, I think you'll find that your theory really does present objectivity as a function of consensus, for you have given no way to identify an objectively true claim other than via consensus. At the very least you see objectivity as being verified in terms of consensus.


Edit: Objectivity has a connection to consensus, but it is not nearly as strong as a necessary condition. As I said in post #3, an objective truth is "accessible to all." Put differently, it is confirmable or reproducible, but that doesn't mean that everyone will reproduce it. On a spectrum it may be true that the more obvious some truth is, the more objective it is, and the stronger the consensus which obtains around the truth. Nevertheless, it is incorrect to infer from an absence of consensus an absence of objectivity, for not everything that is objective is obvious. "Results in consensus in principle" is a rather bad definition. I would suggest ditching consensus and picking up something like accessibility, confirmability, or reproducibility. These concepts unearth in a more clear and direct way your claim that objectivity "results in consensus in principle."
 
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Kylie

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Sure, but the softer claim that consensus is a necessary condition of objectivity falls into the same problems.

How is that so when the causal sequence is completely reversed?

Further, I think you'll find that your theory really does present objectivity as a function of consensus, for you have given no way to identify an objectively true claim other than via consensus. At the very least you see objectivity as being verified in terms of consensus.

I'm open to other ideas, but given that something that is objective (say, the brightness of the sun at a particular location at a particular time) can be independently measured and all measurements will agree is strong evidence that what is being measured is objective. After all, if we tried to measure something that is subjective (such as what is the best movie ever made), then conclusions are going to have quite a lot of variance.

Edit: Objectivity has a connection to consensus, but it is not nearly as strong as a necessary condition. As I said in post #3, an objective truth is "accessible to all." Put differently, it is confirmable or reproducible, but that doesn't mean that everyone will reproduce it. On a spectrum it may be true that the more obvious some truth is, the more objective it is, and the stronger the consensus which obtains around the truth. Nevertheless, it is incorrect to infer from an absence of consensus an absence of objectivity, for not everything that is objective is obvious. I would suggest ditching consensus and picking up something like accessibility, confirmability, or reproducibility.

True, it doesn't mean that reproducibility will take place, and it doesn't mean that everyone will reproduce it if it is possible. But it does require that reproducibility is possible in theory at least.

I also agree with you about using other criteria. I'd point out though that the confirmability and reproducibility that you speak of would lead to consensus. That's what I was trying to say when I was speaking of consensus. I didn't mean for it to be interpreted as consensus being a bunch of guys who are just saying, "Yeah, I guess that sounds okay," or something similar. I was referring to consensus built on reproducible and confirmable results. Sorry if that was unclear.
 
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