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Jesus laid out the conditions for salvation in Mark 16:15-16. Those conditions require man's faith. You can argue with Him if you want.So, although God has warm feelings of kindness and good will to mankind, He is incapable of actually saving all of mankind because human will trumps His will any day of the week.
Great! Does the Bible say that God has foreordained anything?The Bible does not say and I wasn't there.
The difficulty is that Jesus said that His conditions were impossible to meet.Jesus laid out the conditions for salvation in Mark 16:15-16. Those conditions require man's faith. You can argue with Him if you want.
In Luke 18:18-27, Jesus was referring to the fact that It is impossible to be saved by trying to keep the Mosaic Law. The Jews that beleived in the after-life thought they could be saved by keeping the Mosaic Law.The difficulty is that Jesus said that His conditions were impossible to meet.
Luke 18:18 A ruler questioned Him, saying, “Good Teacher, what shall I do to inherit eternal life?” 19 And Jesus said to him, “Why do you call Me good? No one is good except God alone. 20 You know the commandments, ‘Do not commit adultery, Do not murder, Do not steal, Do not bear false witness, Honor your father and mother.’” 21 And he said, “All these things I have kept from my youth.” 22 When Jesus heard this, He said to him, “One thing you still lack; sell all that you possess and distribute it to the poor, and you shall have treasure in heaven; and come, follow Me.” 23 But when he had heard these things, he became very sad, for he was extremely rich. 24 And Jesus looked at him and said, “How hard it is for those who are wealthy to enter the kingdom of God! 25 For it is easier for a camel to go through the eye of a needle than for a rich man to enter the kingdom of God.” 26 They who heard it said, “Then who can be saved?” 27 But He said, “The things that are impossible with people are possible with God.
Who selected the animals for the ark? Did the animals make decisions not to enter the ark with only two of each unclean species deciding to enter the ark?
Don't waste your time and my time by asking me to answer those kinds of questions.Great! Does the Bible say that God has foreordained anything?
Regardless of whether it’s received conditionally, the fact is that, according to you, the sin was paid for. It’s atoned for. In my view, that means it’s no longer accounted to Ralph. He’s no longer on the hook for it. It’s been propitiated. Is it correct to believe that you have some different view?Like I said the payment requires belief on the part of the recipient. That means it is received conditionally. If you don't meet the conditions you don't receive forgiveness of sins.
When people say things I disagree with, I frequently make arguments against what they say. I don't purposely misrepresent what they say because I fear God. I hope you agree with me on that.
It’s past tense because God knew beforehand. It’s not that He knew some in the past, and will know some in the future. That only flies in open theism.The use of "God has not cast away His people whom He foreknew." in Romans 11:2 is past tense. Examples of "His people whom he foreknew" in verses that immediately follow reference OT saints Elijah and David. who had long ago left this planet. Elijah left in a flaming chariot - what a way to go!
I won't. Your mind is completely made up and there is no real possibility of dialogue with you (or myself, as I have my own firm beliefs).Don't waste your time and my time by asking me to answer those kinds of questions.
As you probably know by now, his view is synergistic. Yes, full propitiation has been made for each and every sin, but man is required to cooperate with God's grace in order to receive the propitiation. The underlying thought, of course, is that man's will is free and that he is capable of seeking God. Psalms 14 and 53 as well as their quotation by Paul in Romans 3 are highly problematic for individuals who subscribe to that theology.Regardless of whether it’s received conditionally, the fact is that, according to you, the sin was paid for. It’s atoned for. In my view, that means it’s no longer accounted to Ralph. He’s no longer on the hook for it. It’s been propitiated. Is it correct to believe that you have some different view?
Received conditionally means exactly that. It is only accounted to Ralph once He believes the Gospel.Regardless of whether it’s received conditionally, the fact is that, according to you, the sin was paid for. It’s atoned for.
Per Christ's view in Mark 16:15-16 and Paul's view in Romans 1:16, only those who believe will be saved. Ralph needs to believe to be saved.In my view, that means it’s no longer accounted to Ralph. He’s no longer on the hook for it. It’s been propitiated.
Nothing about the use of "foreknew" in Romans 11:2 speaks of God knowing "some in the future".It’s past tense because God knew beforehand. It’s not that He knew some in the past, and will know some in the future. That only flies in open theism.
Yeah, and that makes propitiation something other than what it actually is.As you probably know by now, his view is synergistic. Yes, full propitiation has been made for each and every sin, but man is required to cooperate with God's grace in order to receive the propitiation. The underlying thought, of course, is that man's will is free and that he is capable of seeking God. Psalms 14 and 53 as well as their quotation by Paul in Romans 3 are highly problematic for individuals who subscribe to that theology.
Be perfect as your Father in heaven is perfect. Sound familiar?Paul is speaking to a group of unsaved Athenians here.......
Truly, these times of ignorance God overlooked, but now commands all men everywhere to repent........ (Acts 17:30).
ALL MEN..........EVERYWHERE......
So, how is it that God commands people to do what you believe He has already made it impossible for them to do?"
You are still going to great lengths to avoid addressing the argument. As to avoid goading, I’ll let it go for now.Received conditionally means exactly that. It is only accounted to Ralph once He believes the Gospel.
Romans 1:16 For I am not ashamed of the gospel, because it is the power of God that brings salvation to everyone who believes: first to the Jew, then to the Gentile.
Per Christ's view in Mark 16:15-16 and Paul's view in Romans 1:16, only those who believe will be saved. Ralph needs to believe to be saved.
My post #275 does an excellent job at explaining this. I am done talking about this.
That doesn’t counter my argument.Nothing about the use of "foreknew" in Romans 11:2 speaks of God knowing "some in the future".
This is taken from the following link: The Meaning Of proginōskō (“To Foreknow”), Thomas R. Edgar | Bible Exposition Commentary
In secular Greek, proginōskō meant to foreknow, to know beforehand. Scholars do not seriously dispute this definition. It does not refer to election, loving relationship, or predestination. Biblical interpreters have provided no extra-biblical examples with a meaning other than to know beforehand. The few examples in the apocryphal books of the Greek Old Testament agree. Those who infuse certain New Testament occurrences with a different meaning rely on different words as the basis for their interpretation.
That didn't answer my question. Besides that verse doesn't say " God commands you to be perfect". Does it? So how do you explain God commanding people to repent, when He created them with no chance of doing so?Be perfect as your Father in heaven is perfect. Sound familiar?
You do not accept Christ's payment can be received conditionally. And that lines up with Calvinist thought because "Limited Atonement" insists that Christ only died for the elect, So in Calvinism, there is no need for the Christ's payment to be received conditionally - so why should you accept that.You are still going to great lengths to avoid addressing the argument. As to avoid goading, I’ll let it go for now.
The point was that God commands us to do things we are unable to fully do. That is basically every command given.That didn't answer my question. Besides that verse doesn't say " God commands you to be perfect". Does it? So how do you explain God commanding people to repent, when He created them with no chance of doing so?
I know that’s your position. But that didn’t address my hypothetical.You do not accept Christ's payment can be received conditionally. And that lines up with Calvinist thought because "Limited Atonement" insists that Christ only died for the elect, So in Calvinism, there is no need for the Christ's payment to be received conditionally - so why should you accept that.
However, 2 Peter 2:1, says that Christ paid for False Teachers who were on their way to Hell and I mentioned that to you much earlier on this thread.
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