Can anybody tell me if it's biblically ok to touch each other? I don't care about your own personal opinions, and I don't want to know what Webster's definition of sex is, I just want to know what God has to say about it. I guess this would depend on what the biblical definition of fornication is in the original language. Can anybody tell me if the original biblical text forbids mutual masturbation, or just premarital sexual intercourse?
Is Mutual Masturbation a Sin?
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childofGod31
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Fornication (from Blue letter bible, the word por-nā'-ä )
1) illicit sexual intercourse
a) adultery, fornication, homosexuality, lesbianism, intercourse with animals etc.
b) sexual intercourse with close relatives; Lev. 18
c) sexual intercourse with a divorced man or woman; Mk. 10:11,12
2) metaph. the worship of idols
a) of the defilement of idolatry, as incurred by eating the sacrifices offered to idols
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This Bible verse is pretty clear and dispositive for me. It's not just a question of fornication, it's a question of purity and respect for the other person:
"Treat . . . younger women as sisters, with absolute purity." I Timothy 5:1-2
"Treat . . . younger women as sisters, with absolute purity." I Timothy 5:1-2
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Matariki
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YouTube - Masturbation as Birth Control
If your married then sure, there's nothing wrong with it.
But if you're not, then chances are this act will eventually lead to premartial sex and will be classed as an act of fornication.
What is an appropriate level of intimacy before marriage?
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It's okay during marriage, as it promotes the two becoming one flesh. Not so outside of it. If I remember correctly, the word "inappropriate contentea" was used for sexual sin and it was a "junk drawer" term. Meaning anything and everything from incest, rape, inappropriate behavior with animals, etc. God knew there would be someone who would ask "Well you said that wasn't okay, but what about this?" If you're trying to get around God on a technicality, I would stop right there.
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The Bible says that NO, it is not okay.
1 Corinthians 7:9
But if they cannot control themselves, they should marry, for it is better to marry than to burn with passion.
If you cannot control yourself, get married.
If it was okay for non-married couples to perform such acts, what is stopping single men from going to prostitutes for the same? If you were married, would you be fine with your husband doing such an act with someone else?
1 Corinthians 7:9
But if they cannot control themselves, they should marry, for it is better to marry than to burn with passion.
If you cannot control yourself, get married.
If it was okay for non-married couples to perform such acts, what is stopping single men from going to prostitutes for the same? If you were married, would you be fine with your husband doing such an act with someone else?
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gabrielListens
eagles fly alone
The word masturbation, and the act of masturbating does not appear anywhere in the bible. Jesus never mentioned it and God never did either.
All of these quotes calling it a sin are really attempts at grasping at straws. Did anyone even wonder why it actually works?I mean have you ever tried to tickle yourself? Self-stimulation should not work either, but it does! God must have had a reason for making it possible.
Now, IT IS in the bible that its not good for a man to touch a woman:
Now concerning the things whereof ye wrote unto me: [It is] good for a man not to touch a woman.
1 Corinthians 7:1 King James Version
So, mutual masturbation would be a no-no according to the bible.
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Thank you for all your comments, but I guess that only that last one made any impact on me.
However, I've decided-agree with me or not-that mutual masturbation is ok. Now, here's my reasoning, if you care to argue.
I've dealt with the issue of masturbation before. At first, I didn't fully understand it and I thought it was wrong. I was 10 or 11 when I started doing it and I tried to stop but I really couldn't. I felt guilty about it but after doing a lot of research about the subject and praying to God diligently I feel that God truly showed me that there really is nothing wrong with it. Yes, I do believe that lusting after somebody is wrong (as in the state of being willing to commit such a sin or any sin), and inappropriate contentography and fantasizing about sex is wrong and unhealthy (although one could argue that the verse about lust is referring to lusting after somebody else's spouse, not your bf/gf, but that's another story). But I don't lust and I don't fantasize when I do it, to be honest, since we're on an awkward subject anyway, I don't think about guys when I do it, I think about myself cuz I kinda think I'm hot lol. So I've dealt with this before and I truly believe God would have stopped me from doing it if it were wrong, since he always has when I do anything else wrong, nor do I even think it POSSIBLE for me to quit, I do it like twice a day. I agree with the last comment, why would God even make it a possibility for us if it was wrong? And why would he make it such a strong urge? I started doing it before I even knew what it was. And searching through Leviticus, it mentions every possible sexual sin EXCEPT for masturbation. Why would it go into great detail about inappropriate behavior with animals, incest, homosexuality, etc. but not mention masturbation at all? The only logical answer is that masturbation isn't wrong, otherwise God surely would have told us.
As for MUTUAL masturbation though, I don't think that's wrong either. I could be wrong about that, but here's my reasoning. I think God forbid premarital sex because that he didn't want STDs such as aids to spread, nor did he want unwanted pregnancies, and since the closest thing to condoms back then was pig's intestines, it was an understandable concern. I also think that God didn't want us to become obsessed with sex like many cultures (such as the Greeks) at that time were (and still are) and didn't want us to spend all our time at orgies and the like with unbelievers, but rather stay focused on the more important goal, which was to follow Christ and spread the gospel. So I don't think that God gave us these commandments just to ruin our fun; I believe he's a logical God and had valid reasons for them. He doesn't want us to be hurt and he doesn't want us to hurt each other. Afterall, isn't the foundation of all his commands "Love your God and your neighbor"? It makes sense then that he wanted sex to be within the bonds of marriage, for various reasons. It doesn't make sense to me; though, that he wouldn't allow mutual masturbation, since it's not hurting anybody and it's not going against the base command to love God and one another. As for LWB's question, I probably wouldn't be ok with my husband going to a prostitute for that-but then, would I want my husband kissing somebody else either? But that doesn't mean that kissing is wrong. I could be totally wrong about all this, but this is my opinion and if anybody can give me any evidence which suggests otherwise, let me know. As for 1 Corinthians 7:1-my Bible, NIV, translates it as "It is good for a man not to have sexual relations with a woman.” I don't think I really take it as meaning mutual masturbation, I think I'm leaning more towards that meaning, in the days of King James, sex. I would be very, very interested in knowing what that verse says in the ORIGINAL language and the literal translation. If anybody can please show me a website, or something, which will give me the literal translation of these Bible verses from the original language they were written in, it would be much appreciated. Otherwise, I suppose I'll just have to learn Greek or Latin or whatever... which may not be a bad idea.
EDIT: I did find some articles about it.
"Before attempting to interpret Paul’s words in verse 1, we must pause to point out that the translation of the NIV is inaccurate. The expression, “not to touch a woman,” is a reference to sexual intercourse, not marriage, and thus the NIV is in error when it translates as it does.
The idiom ‘to touch a woman’ occurs nine times in Greek antiquity, ranging across six centuries and a variety of writers, and in every other instance, without ambiguity it refers to having sexual intercourse. There is no evidence of any kind that it can be extended or watered down to mean, ‘It is good for a man not to marry."...When Paul says, “It is good for a man not to touch a woman,” I think he is repeating the position held by the Corinthian ascetics. This was their slogan. Paul repeats the statement, not because he agrees with it in its entirety, but because he agrees with it in part."
"The original language used here is not implying marriage, but is referring to having actual sexual intercourse with a woman. If Paul were speaking against marriage, than he would not have spoken so favorably of it in Ephesians 5 and 1 Timothy 3. Another important note is that the statement Paul is making in this passage should not be taken as an absolute. "It is his suggestion specifically for Corinth because of some present crisis there that he refers to in 7:26."
However, I've decided-agree with me or not-that mutual masturbation is ok. Now, here's my reasoning, if you care to argue.
I've dealt with the issue of masturbation before. At first, I didn't fully understand it and I thought it was wrong. I was 10 or 11 when I started doing it and I tried to stop but I really couldn't. I felt guilty about it but after doing a lot of research about the subject and praying to God diligently I feel that God truly showed me that there really is nothing wrong with it. Yes, I do believe that lusting after somebody is wrong (as in the state of being willing to commit such a sin or any sin), and inappropriate contentography and fantasizing about sex is wrong and unhealthy (although one could argue that the verse about lust is referring to lusting after somebody else's spouse, not your bf/gf, but that's another story). But I don't lust and I don't fantasize when I do it, to be honest, since we're on an awkward subject anyway, I don't think about guys when I do it, I think about myself cuz I kinda think I'm hot lol. So I've dealt with this before and I truly believe God would have stopped me from doing it if it were wrong, since he always has when I do anything else wrong, nor do I even think it POSSIBLE for me to quit, I do it like twice a day. I agree with the last comment, why would God even make it a possibility for us if it was wrong? And why would he make it such a strong urge? I started doing it before I even knew what it was. And searching through Leviticus, it mentions every possible sexual sin EXCEPT for masturbation. Why would it go into great detail about inappropriate behavior with animals, incest, homosexuality, etc. but not mention masturbation at all? The only logical answer is that masturbation isn't wrong, otherwise God surely would have told us.
As for MUTUAL masturbation though, I don't think that's wrong either. I could be wrong about that, but here's my reasoning. I think God forbid premarital sex because that he didn't want STDs such as aids to spread, nor did he want unwanted pregnancies, and since the closest thing to condoms back then was pig's intestines, it was an understandable concern. I also think that God didn't want us to become obsessed with sex like many cultures (such as the Greeks) at that time were (and still are) and didn't want us to spend all our time at orgies and the like with unbelievers, but rather stay focused on the more important goal, which was to follow Christ and spread the gospel. So I don't think that God gave us these commandments just to ruin our fun; I believe he's a logical God and had valid reasons for them. He doesn't want us to be hurt and he doesn't want us to hurt each other. Afterall, isn't the foundation of all his commands "Love your God and your neighbor"? It makes sense then that he wanted sex to be within the bonds of marriage, for various reasons. It doesn't make sense to me; though, that he wouldn't allow mutual masturbation, since it's not hurting anybody and it's not going against the base command to love God and one another. As for LWB's question, I probably wouldn't be ok with my husband going to a prostitute for that-but then, would I want my husband kissing somebody else either? But that doesn't mean that kissing is wrong. I could be totally wrong about all this, but this is my opinion and if anybody can give me any evidence which suggests otherwise, let me know. As for 1 Corinthians 7:1-my Bible, NIV, translates it as "It is good for a man not to have sexual relations with a woman.” I don't think I really take it as meaning mutual masturbation, I think I'm leaning more towards that meaning, in the days of King James, sex. I would be very, very interested in knowing what that verse says in the ORIGINAL language and the literal translation. If anybody can please show me a website, or something, which will give me the literal translation of these Bible verses from the original language they were written in, it would be much appreciated. Otherwise, I suppose I'll just have to learn Greek or Latin or whatever... which may not be a bad idea.
EDIT: I did find some articles about it.
"Before attempting to interpret Paul’s words in verse 1, we must pause to point out that the translation of the NIV is inaccurate. The expression, “not to touch a woman,” is a reference to sexual intercourse, not marriage, and thus the NIV is in error when it translates as it does.
The idiom ‘to touch a woman’ occurs nine times in Greek antiquity, ranging across six centuries and a variety of writers, and in every other instance, without ambiguity it refers to having sexual intercourse. There is no evidence of any kind that it can be extended or watered down to mean, ‘It is good for a man not to marry."...When Paul says, “It is good for a man not to touch a woman,” I think he is repeating the position held by the Corinthian ascetics. This was their slogan. Paul repeats the statement, not because he agrees with it in its entirety, but because he agrees with it in part."
"The original language used here is not implying marriage, but is referring to having actual sexual intercourse with a woman. If Paul were speaking against marriage, than he would not have spoken so favorably of it in Ephesians 5 and 1 Timothy 3. Another important note is that the statement Paul is making in this passage should not be taken as an absolute. "It is his suggestion specifically for Corinth because of some present crisis there that he refers to in 7:26."
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