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@ Jasson
Right. That was a poor example that I provided. My bad. Jesus asking the man to carry his mattress home on the Sabbath might be a better example. It caused a HUGE issue.
No. Observing the Sabbath is not the same as a Commandment for the Sabbath.
No commandment for the Sabbath exists in the New Testament after the cross (Note: The New Covenant officially began with Christ's death). Anyways, you cannot provide a commandment for the Sabbath in the New Testament here because it doesn't exist.
In addition, no sin of breaking the Sabbath is mentioned in the New Testament, either. If the Sabbath is as important as you say, then surely we should see it mentioned as a commandment.
Ellen G. White (of the SDA church) had a vision of the 4th command being highlighted. Of course she made many false prophecies that did not come to pass. The Bible says we are not to listen to a person who gives false prophecies.
There are statements in all four verses that indicate that there are those with the law and those without the law. Isn't it your contention that the law is for everyone? You are not in agreement with "God's WORD" on this.Not really Steve,
The CONTEXT of ROMANS 2:14-15 is in ROMANS 2:12-13. Thats what your leaving out.
ROMANS 2:12-13
[12], For as many as have sinned without law shall also perish without law: and as many as have sinned in the law shall be judged by the law;
[13], For not the hearers of the law are just before God, but the doers of the law shall be justified.
v14-15 is continuing on the same thoughts from v12-13 showing that LOVE fulfills the LAW. While v12-13 show that there is consequences for breaking God's LAW when there is no LOVE. None have LOVE without God for GOD is LOVE (1 John 4:8)
Sorry Steve out of sight out of mind does not work in the NEW COVENANT.
That was in reference to what had caused him to be an invalid for thirty-eight years. If he continued in sin, something worse would happen. Here is the exact quote.Not really. The word in Greek is "mat", not bed. It was likely everything he owned. Again, the mat was not the issue. If you think He told the lame man to break Shabbat, then why later when He saw the man in the Temple did He tell him NOT to sin?
There are statements in all four verses that indicate that there are those with the law and those without the law. Isn't it your contention that the law is for everyone? You are not in agreement with "God's WORD" on this.
What is the difference between "apart from the law" and "under the law"? (vs 12)
The verse is showing a contrast between the two types of people, those apart from the law, and those under the law. How could "under the law" mean under the "condemnation" of the law in this verse? That would mean that those that sin apart from the law are not under its condemnation. How does that work?
All this seems to confirm my point. There are some who are without (apart from) the law. Is it not your contention that the law is for everyone? (not abolished)Not at all Romans 3:9-19 build in Romans 2:4-13. Paul is saying that both Jew and Gentiles are all under sin, for all have sinned and fall short of the Glory of God. In this context 3v19 "UNDER THE LAW" means to be guilty before God of breaking it. 2v12 is saying that you can know or not know God's LAW but either say there is consequences. Those that do not have have the law will perish without the law. Those that know the law will be judged by it.
Mentioned earlier "apart" is translated "without" so means those without the law shall also perish without the law. Those that have sinned by knowing the law shall be judged by the law.
No it isn't it is showing a contrast between those who have the law and those that do not.
ROMANS 3:9-19 builds on ROMANS 3:4-13. Let's look at all the scriptures together...
ROMANS 3:9-20
[9], What then? are we better than they? No, in no way: FOR WE HAVE PROVED BOTH JEW AND GREEK, THAT THEY ARE ALL UNDER SIN;
[10], As it is written, THERE IS NONE RIGHTOUESS NO NOT ONE:
[11], There is none that understands, there is none that seeks after God.
[12], They are all gone out of the way, they are together become unprofitable; there is none that does good, no, not one.
[13[, Their throat is an open sepulcher; with their tongues they have used deceit; the poison of asps is under their lips:
[14], Whose mouth is full of cursing and bitterness:
[15], Their feet are swift to shed blood:
[16], Destruction and misery are in their ways:
[17], And the way of peace have they not known:
[18], There is no fear of God before their eyes.
[19], NOW WE KNOW THAT WHATSOEVER THINGS THE LAW SAYS, IT SAYS TO THEM WHO ARE UNDER THE LAW; that EVERY MOUTH [JEW AND GENTILE] may be stopped, and ALL THE WORLD [JEW AND GENTILE] MAY BECOME GUILTY BEFORE GOD.
[UNDER SIN of breaking God's LAW makes you UNDER IT GUILTY BEFORE GOD WEATHER YOU KNOW IT OR NOT; Because all are UNDER SIN.]
[20], Therefore by the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in his sight: FOR BY THE LAW IS THE KNOWLEDGE OF SIN.
Let's start with v9 which is the CONTEXT. This shows your interpretation of the scriptures is not a correct one brother. It cannot be applicable to just the JEWS because the CONTEXT of v19 in v9 is that BOTH JEW AND GREEK ARE ALL UNDER SIN. Paul says he proved this earlier. WHERE did he prove that BOTH JEWS and GREEKS are ALL UNDER SIN?
Let's have a look where Paul proved that both JEWS and GENTILES are all "UNDER SIN"
ROMANS 2:6-13
[6] Who will render to every man according to his deeds:
[7], To them who by patient continuance in well doing seek for glory and honor and immortality, eternal life:
[8], But to them that are contentious, and do not obey the truth, but obey unrighteousness, indignation and wrath,
[9], Tribulation and anguish, on every soul of man that does evil, of the Jew first, and also of the Gentile;
[10], But glory, honor, and peace, to every man that works good, to the Jew first, and also to the Gentile:
[11], For there is no respect of persons with God.
[12], For as many as have sinned without law shall also perish without law: and as many as have sinned in the law shall be judged by the law;
[13], For not the hearers of the law are just before God, but the doers of the law shall be justified.
ROMANS 3:9 What then? are we better than they? No, in no way: FOR WE HAVE PROVED BOTH JEW AND GREEK, THAT THEY ARE ALL UNDER SIN
PAUL proved this earlier in ROMANS 2:6-13. Where he shows that both JEWS AND GENTILES ARE ALL UNDER SIN and stand guilty before God of breaking his LAW.
Can you see now brother that you are the one here that is leaving out CONTEXT from ROMANS 3:19? I write this only as a help to you.
.................
Now that CONTEXT has been established in ROMANS 2:6-13 and ROMANS 3:9-20. Let's look at the scriptures and see what it means to be "UNDER THE LAW" in ROMANS 3:19.
ROMANS 3:19 [19], NOW WE KNOW THAT WHATSOEVER THINGS THE LAW SAYS, IT SAYS TO THEM WHO ARE UNDER THE LAW; that EVERY MOUTH MAY BE STOPPED [both JEW AND GENTILE], and ALL THE WORLD [both JEW AND GENTTILE] MAY BECOME GUILTY BEFORE GOD.
Who does PAUL say is "UNDER THE LAW" both JEW AND GENTILE because BOTH JEW AND GENTILE [ALL THE WORLD; EVERY MOUTH] stand guilty before GOD of breaking it (Romans 2:6-13). Both JEW and GENTILES are all under SIN there is none good no not one (Romans 3:9; Romans 3:10)
WHAT DOES IT MEAN TO BE "UNDER THE LAW"?
To be "UNDER THE LAW" in this case means to be GUILTY BEFORE GOD of breaking the LAW (sin). FOR BY THE LAW IS THE KNOWLEDGE OF SIN (Romans 3:20) and this is what God's LAW teaches us. That we are all sinners in need of a Saviour
Can you see the CONTEXT you have left out and what ROMANS 3:19 means to be UNDER THE LAW? It means to stand guilty before GOD of breaking it *SIN and applied to both JEWS AND GENTILES [3v19 EVERY MOUTH STOPPED; ALL THE WORLD GUILTY because all are UNDER SIN; broken God's LAW]
Hope this helps brother.![]()
Hi Steve, no it does not confirm your believe that God's LAW is abolished. It simply says all [ALL THE WORLD] are under sin for breaking God's LAW and stand guilty before God wheather they know God's LAW or do not know it.All this seems to confirm my point. There are some who are without (apart from) the law. Is it not your contention that the law is for everyone? (not abolished)
Who are these who "have sinned without law" that "shall also perish without law"? (KJV)Hi Steve, no it does not confirm your believe that God's LAW is abolished. It simply says all are under sin for breaking God's LAW and stand guilty before God wheather they know God's LAW or do not know it.
Gentile UNBELIEVERS who do not know the law. If we do not know the law we still sin and break it in God's eyes.Who are these who "have sinned without law" that "shall also perish without law"? (KJV)
Gentile UNBELIEVERS who do not know the law. If we do not know the law we still sin and break it in God's eyes.How can you sin without law, from your perspective? (no law, no transgression)
Gentile UNBELIEVERS who do not know the law. If we do not know the law we still sin and break it in God's eyes.How can you perish without law, from your perspective? (no transgression, no condemanation)
That was in reference to what had caused him to be an invalid for thirty-eight years. If he continued in sin, something worse would happen. Here is the exact quote.
John 5:14~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
Later Jesus found him at the temple and said to him, “See, you are well again. Stop sinning or something worse may happen to you.”
Consider this. The man who was healed had no idea who healed him, because Jesus had slipped away into the crowd. (vs 13) Jesus knew he had created a situation. What was the situation? We are told in verse nine. The day on which this took place was a Sabbath. Why is that an important fact in the story? We are told in verse ten. “It is the Sabbath; the law forbids you to carry your mat.”
I thought you also contended that those who are ignorant of the law are not condemned by it. How could they have "sinned without law"?Gentile UNBELIEVERS who do not know the law. If we do not know the law we still sin and break it in God's eyes.
Gentile UNBELIEVERS who do not know the law. If we do not know the law we still sin and break it in God's eyes.
Gentile UNBELIEVERS who do not know the law. If we do not know the law we still sin and break it in God's eyes.
ROMANS 2:12 [12], For as many as have sinned without law shall also perish without law: and as many as have sinned in the law shall be judged by the law
Without the law = Gentile UNBELIEVERS who do not know the law
Sinned in the law = Believers who know the law
ROMANS 3:9-10 [9] What then? are we better than they? No, in no way: FOR WE HAVE PROVED BOTH JEW AND GREEK, THAT THEY ARE ALL UNDER SIN;
[10], As it is written, THERE IS NONE RIGHTOUESS NO NOT ONE:
[JEW BELIEVER and GENTILE UNBELIEVER]
ROMANS 3:19 [19], NOW WE KNOW THAT WHATSOEVER THINGS THE LAW SAYS, IT SAYS TO THEM WHO ARE UNDER THE LAW; that EVERY MOUTH [JEW AND GENTILE] may be stopped, and ALL THE WORLD [JEW AND GENTILE] MAY BECOME GUILTY BEFORE GOD.
WHAT DOES IT MEAN TO BE "UNDER THE LAW" in ROMANS 3?
To be "UNDER THE LAW" in this case means to be GUILTY BEFORE GOD of breaking the LAW (sin). FOR BY THE LAW IS THE KNOWLEDGE OF SIN (Romans 3:20) and this is what God's LAW teaches us. That we are all sinners in need of a Saviour
Hope this helps
Where does the law say that doing good works on the Sabbath (that would otherwise be a violation) is lawful? It seems that you are confusing the law and the law of Christ.My point was that if, as you say, He told the man to break Shabbat, why would He even bother to tell him not to sin. Remember, the Pharisees also said He should not heal on Shabbat. I think the only thing that could prove your point was when He made mud on Shabbat to heal the blind man…oh, but wait, there is that doing good works on the Sabbath thing again![]()
I thought you also contended that those who are ignorant of the law are not condemned by it. How could they have "sinned without law"?