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BigBadWlf
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In what way? Is it not a preference for non-normative sexual activity which causes social problems and distress in the person with the paraphilia or those related to them? That being pretty much the sum total of the criteria for being a paraphilia. . . you must have something more significant than it isn't listed as a separate paraphilia anymore but now falls under paraphilia NOSer, being a paraphilia on the list vs. a paraphilia NOS doesn't make it or break it as far as meeting the criteria.
I see you have altered your definition of paraphilia again.
The definition of paraphilia in the DSM IV TR:
recurrent, intense sexually arousing fantasies, sexual urges, or behaviors generally involving, 1. nonhuman objects; 2. suffering or humiliation of oneself or one's partner; or 3. children or other non-consenting persons, that occur over a period of at ≥ 6 months. The behavior, sexual urges, or fantasies cause clinically significant distress or impairment in social, occupational, or other important areas of functioning."
To take the criteria in order:
Homosexuality involves persons of the same gender, not nonhuman objects
Homosexuality relies no more on suffering or humiliation than heterosexuality
Homosexuality does not involve children any more than heterosexuality does
Homosexuality is as consensual as heterosexuality.
if one contends that homosexuality is the cause of distress or impairment in some area of functioning then one must clarify if it is the sexual orientation or the negative response of others that is the causative agent.
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