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I don't insist that they speak anything, although, Hebrew was what they spoke in biblical times.
Shouldn't it be called the Israeli Almanac then?
I am saying that I am going to use the original language used in scripture as my guide and I am going to discard anyone else's opinion. I think that is simple to understand.
I ahve never read Arthur Keostler so I really do not have an opinion.
They were born in Israel and they followed the Judaism religion. Jesus recruited the apostles and then died for us to usher in the New Covenant. At that time the apostles no longer followed Judaism and became Christian. The original authors of scripture called them Ἰουδαίων and so will I.
Gentiles were all that did not follow Judaism. During Jesus time there were many Romans and Greeks within Jerusalem so the term was interchangeable with them. However, in the OT many people that did not follow Judaism were called gentiles.
Use scripture instead of Webster's dictionary. It will serve you much better.
Hebrew in Biblical times for Israel,Yiddish for the modern Jews.
"Strictly speaking it is incorrect to call an ancient Israelite a "Jew"
What's so hard to understand about that?
You can't very well call Jews are Israel if they say it is incorrect...
Read post 105 on Yiddish by Arthur Koestler,who by the way is a Jew.
The Tradition of the elders was the Talmud in the time of Jesus,and the Talmud was formed in Babylon,why would Jesus and the Apostles follow something that was formed in Babylon?
Stephen S. Wise, deceased, and formerly Chief Rabbi of the United States stated, "The return from Babylon and the adoption of the Babylonian Talmud marked the end of Hebrewism and the beginning of Judaism. "
Matthew 15:2:Why do thy disciples transgress the tradition of the elders? for they wash not their hands when they eat bread.
What you are doing is connecting Judaism with Israel which is an extremely false connection.
Judaism is not the religion of the Bible.
Jew in the NT simply means a geographic address or a Tribe.
You seem to imply that the only meaning it carries is Judaism...
Did you read the 1828 Webster's definition?
the denomination was given to all nations who were not Romans.
Jesus and the Apostles were not Romans,that would make them gentiles.
Or in YOUR modern sense non-Jews?
You do know words carry meanings and you seem to assume the modern meanings of words.
Jew=Judaism
Gentile=Non Jew
You should use other resources like a Strong's Exhaustive Concordance to help you along.....
Another stupid rule that has no practical value in real life...
I find religion to be VERY impractical to modern life. :/
There is no logic behind this rule. Modern pork is no worse - or better - for you than beef or chicken or anything else processed we eat.
Was not the handwriting of ordinances nailed to the cross?
Colossians 2:14 Blotting out the handwriting of ordinances that was against us, which was contrary to us, and took it out of the way, nailing it to his cross;
(Eph 2:15) the law of commandments contained in ordinances
(Col 2:14) the handwriting of ordinances
(Hebrews 7:16) the law of a carnal commandment
(Hebrews 9:10) "carnal ordinances"
Then why are people still living as though they werent? It becomes then touch not , taste not, handle not after the commandments of men who pick and choose which outward ordinance to follow and then judge others with it. Glorying in the flesh keeps one from loving another because they judge others as sinners because of the particular outward ordinance that they follow and glory in.
Colossians 2: 20 Wherefore if ye be dead with Christ from the rudiments of the world, why, as though living in the world, are ye subject to ordinances,
21 (Touch not; taste not; handle not;
22 Which all are to perish with the usingafter the commandments and doctrines of men?
23 Which things have indeed a shew of wisdom in will worship, and humility, and neglecting of the body; not in any honour to the satisfying of the flesh.
The Pharisees judged after the flesh. We are to judge what is within not what is without.
John 8:15 Ye judge after the flesh; I judge no man.
Hebrew in Biblical times for Israel,Yiddish for the modern Jews.
"Strictly speaking it is incorrect to call an ancient Israelite a "Jew"
What's so hard to understand about that?
You can't very well call Jews are Israel if they say it is incorrect...
Read post 105 on Yiddish by Arthur Koestler,who by the way is a Jew.
The Tradition of the elders was the Talmud in the time of Jesus,and the Talmud was formed in Babylon,why would Jesus and the Apostles follow something that was formed in Babylon?
Stephen S. Wise, deceased, and formerly Chief Rabbi of the United States stated, "The return from Babylon and the adoption of the Babylonian Talmud marked the end of Hebrewism and the beginning of Judaism. "
Matthew 15:2:Why do thy disciples transgress the tradition of the elders? for they wash not their hands when they eat bread.
What you are doing is connecting Judaism with Israel which is an extremely false connection.
Judaism is not the religion of the Bible.
Jew in the NT simply means a geographic address or a Tribe.
You seem to imply that the only meaning it carries is Judaism...
Did you read the 1828 Webster's definition?
the denomination was given to all nations who were not Romans.
Jesus and the Apostles were not Romans,that would make them gentiles.
Or in YOUR modern sense non-Jews?
You do know words carry meanings and you seem to assume the modern meanings of words.
Jew=Judaism
Gentile=Non Jew
You should use other resources like a Strong's Exhaustive Concordance to help you along.....
Again, I am going to continue using the original language of scripture and I am not going to use your interpretation. I thought I made that clear.
BTW- I use a wide range of resources in my word studies not just Strong's.
Galatians 4:22-31
King James Version (KJV)
22For it is written, that Abraham had two sons, the one by a bondmaid, the other by a freewoman.
23But he who was of the bondwoman was born after the flesh; but he of the freewoman was by promise.
24Which things are an allegory: for these are the two covenants; the one from the mount Sinai, which gendereth to bondage, which is Agar.
25For this Agar is mount Sinai in Arabia, and answereth to Jerusalem which now is, and is in bondage with her children.
26But Jerusalem which is above is free, which is the mother of us all.
27For it is written, Rejoice, thou barren that bearest not; break forth and cry, thou that travailest not: for the desolate hath many more children than she which hath an husband.
28Now we, brethren, as Isaac was, are the children of promise.
29But as then he that was born after the flesh persecuted him that was born after the Spirit, even so it is now.
30Nevertheless what saith the scripture? Cast out the bondwoman and her son: for the son of the bondwoman shall not be heir with the son of the freewoman. 31So then, brethren, we are not children of the bondwoman, but of the free.
The Covenant from Sinai is flesh, and puts in bondage.
But the New Covenant from above is Spirit, and is Free.
Except a man is born again from above, he shall in no way enter into the Kingdom of heaven.
Regarding Colossians 2:14..
Read it with v 15
Colossians 2:14-15:14Blotting out the handwriting of ordinances that was against us, which was contrary to us, and took it out of the way, nailing it to his cross; 15And having spoiled principalities and powers, he made a shew of them openly, triumphing over them in it.
Where does it say Mosaic law?
Colossians 2:8:Beware lest any man spoil you through philosophy and vain deceit, after the tradition of men, after the rudiments of the world, and not after Christ.
Jesus saved us from our sins by nailing the traditions of men,laws of men to the cross.
It is the laws of man that makes one disobey God?
http://www.israelect.com/reference/ArnoldKennedy/'Born Again' or 'Begotten From Above'~.pdf - BORN AGAIN OR BORN FROM ABOVE?
An examination from language to show that Jesus did not say, Ye must be born again. An examination of Born-again-ism with paragraphs on, Whom did God beget, Abraham and Sarah -the origin and what formed from the womb means.
Well give me your interpretation on why Jesus and the Apostles were ''gentiles'' while Paul was not?
the denomination was given to all nations who were not Romans.
What is so hard to understand about that?
Why would you do things when the Jews say it is incorrect?Israel spoke Hebrew,didn't they? Modern Jews speak Yiddish.
Are you going to continue to equate Jesus and the Apostles followed the Talmud,which was formed in Babylon?
Are you going to continue to confuse the word Jew with Israel and Judaism?
If you really do use Strong's you would know what Jew means....
Read this carefully....
Stephen S. Wise, deceased, and formerly Chief Rabbi of the United States stated, "The return from Babylon and the adoption of the Babylonian Talmud marked the end of Hebrewism and the beginning of Judaism. "
I'm not sure you will have answers to this,we can go around again and again and I think you will only answer what suits you....
None were gentiles.
The denomination is used throughout scripture to identify the uncircumcised. In the OT is used for Babylonians, Assyrians, Philistines, and others.
Understand what?
The scriptures use specific language. Since the authors wrote the text, and since the text is inspired by the Holy Spirit, then the original language takes precedence over any person's opinion.
Jesus and the apostles quote repeatedly from the LXX so we know that they used it. As to which Hebrew version they used, that is not revealed in scripture.
Your problem is with the original language of scripture not with me. I will continue to use the biblical language over anyone else interpretation.
So Stephen S. Wise, Chief Rabbi of the US, is supperior in knowledge than the writers of scripture? Read the bible carefully and do not believe everything else you read elsewhere. The bible calls the apostles and Jesus Jews so I will continue to use the biblical term.
Tell me, was Jesus the King of the Jews or not?
That's the thing. I posted the original language which is the same in the TR, the Majority text, and Wescott and Hort. Why do you doubt the scriptures?
I'm done. I am not going to continue going in circles with you. Good night.
I'm done. I am not going to continue going in circles with you. Good night.
Excellent reasoning, ptomwebster!I find religion to be VERY impractical to modern life. :/
There is no logic behind this rule. Modern pork is no worse - or better - for you than beef or chicken or anything else processed we eat.
Do modern pigs have sweat glands? Did Christ's death on the cross give them sweat glands? Did Christ's death on the cross mean you don't need to have your children wash their hands before they eat? Take another look at the dietary laws and then think of the sanitation rules we have today. Not following God's dietary law is not a sin unto death but not following them might cause you to get sick. Remember they didn't have very good refrigerators back then.
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