The Sabbath Commandment is still binding on Christians today and has been applicable to the saints - the people of God from Eden to this very day. This is affirmation of the Commandments of God, of the Sabbath Commandment's origin, of the continued authority of the Sabbath commandment from the Bible in Ex 20:8-11, from Gen 2:1-3, from Mark 2:27, from Is 66:23 from 1Cor 7:19 from 1John 5:1-4, from Mark 7:6-13, from Eph 6:2 from Rev 14:12 ... etc is not only affirmed by Seventh-day Adventists, and not only by other Bible believing Christians who keep the seventh day Sabbath as God gave it to mankind in Eden ... but also by the majority of even pro-sunday Christian scholarship as we see here... #
1.
The fiction that it is only the SDAs that see these Bible details is not supportable given the facts in that link and the associated discussion that follows up -- indeed "that ship has sailed" even by the standards of the majority of Christian scholarship.
Thus even MoreCofee is reduced to nothing more than the penguins that suffer the difficulty of "an Antarctican day" in his attempts to oppose
Nice of you to bring this thread up.
You are welcome - sooo many people have mentioned my debate here and supposed that maybe there was a point made here that they would like to reference .... just trying to help out.
Where do you get the idea the Sabbath is binding on the Christian?
The same place the majority of even pro-sunday scholarship get it from --
Gen 2:1-3
Is 66:23 , Mark 2:27 (all mankind)
1Cor 7:19,
1John 5:1-4
Heb 4: 9 So there remains a Sabbath rest for the people of God
Rev 14:12
Mark 7:6-13
Who is the Sabbath given to?
Mankind - according to God Is 66;23 -- and according to Christ Mark 2:27.
Were you wondering if Jews were part of mankind?
Why did God command the Israelites to keep the Sabbath if it was given to all men
You ask that question is if it is logcal not to ask Israel to keep a Law that all mankind is supposed to keep.
Interesting that the majority of even pro-sunday scholarship does not go to that extreme.
Moses himself does not support your position
Until you read Gen 2:1-3 and Ex 20:11 and notice that it is the Gen 2 event alone - given to mankind that establishes the fact that Christ Himself affirms in Mark 2:27.
Are you are supposing that "I wrote" Mark 2:27??
. See Deut 5:3. Moses does not say all men. He says Israel only.
Deut 5:3 does not say "Israel only is to keep the Commandments of God" nor does it say "Israel only is to keep the Sabbath".
But it does speak of the entire Sinai event - including God speaking from the midst of fire - as being something that Israel only was part of -
4 The Lord spoke to you face to face at the mountain from the midst of the fire, 5 while I was standing between the Lord and you at that time, to declare to you the word of the Lord; for you were afraid because of the fire and did not go up the mountain. He said,
Hint - that includes "Love your neighbor as yourself" Lev 19:18 given at Sinai and also "Love God with all your heart" Deut 6:5
The Sabbath did not originate in Genesis.
God appears to differ with your view when HE says that HE made Sabbath in Eden - see Ex 20:11 speaking of the Eden event.
To use MK 2:27 for support you must divorce it from the context
Not true at all.
There are numerous places in the Bible where God is said to be creator - one can not "delete those statements" because the context is in reference to some message given by a prophet to Israel at a time of rebellion.
The same goes with Mark 2:27 the universal truth given there cannot be "deleted" because it happens to be said in a debate with Jews.
The argument there were non Israelites present
"Non-Israel" is present in Is 66:23 "from Sabbath to Sabbath shall ALL MANKIND come before Me to worship".
"Non Israel" is present in Is 56 when gentiles are blessed for keeping the Sabbath.
"Non Israel" is included in the "Mankind" of Mark 2:27.
Which is the way the scope for "mankind" works -- by definition.
Interesting how even the majority of pro-sunday sources get this Bible detail right.
If God gave the Sabbath to Israel as a sign of the covenant, it would be special. If all mankind were told to observe it, it could have no special meaning to Israel. See Ex 31:13.
On the contrary See Romans 2: refutes that idea - showing that God INClUdes the obedient Gentile in the term "Jew" rather than excluding them.
25 For indeed circumcision is of value if you practice the Law; but if you are a
transgressor of the Law, your circumcision has become uncircumcision. 26 So if the uncircumcised m
an keeps the requirements of the Law, will not his uncircumcision be regarded as circumcision? 27 And he who is physically uncircumcised, if he keeps the Law, will he not judge you who though having the letter
of the Law and circumcision are a transgressor of the Law? 28 For
he is not a Jew who is one outwardly, nor is circumcision that which is outward in the flesh. 29 But
he is a Jew who is one inwardly; and circumcision is that which is of the heart, by the Spirit, not by the letter; and his praise is not from men, but from God.
Is 66:23 does not say anything about the Sabbath.
Until you read the text. "from Sabbath to Sabbath shall ALL mankind come before Me to worship".
interesting that the majority of even pro-sunday scholarship gets this Bible detail.
The verse merely is the way time was referenced. "From ... to" has nothing to do with on.
Until you read the verse - and find TWO cycles given there 'from new Moon to new Moon - AND FROM -- Sabbath to Sabbath"
You are trying to munge it into "daily I just mean daily... every day" as if there was even one Bible argument for such a bend or wrench of the text.
In 1 Cor 7:19 Paul is not teaching nor addressing the 10 Cs the rest of the law.
Until you read 1Cor 7:18 "
what matters is KEEPING the Commandments of God" which Christ also affirms in Mark 7:6-13 as a reference to the TEN Commandments.
To take your position Paul is double speaking. Double speaking is lying to deceive. God does not use such a tactic.
Indeed. We all wonder why your argument is meandering down that road to make your point.
you are being sooooo careful not to actually quote these texts... how odd.
As for 1 John 5:1-4 and Rev 14:12 you and John are not referencing the same commandments
Until you read the actual Bible where it is the "Commandments of God" mentioned in both 1John 5:1-4 and Rev 14:12 and by Christ in Mark 7:6-13 when Christ speaks of the TEN Commandments.
as is evident with 1 JN 3:23 and John 1:17 and 15:10.
Not quite true. Post cross 1John 3:23 and pre-cross ( John 1:17 and John 15:10) make no attempt at all to delete scripture.
Concerning MK 7:6-13 Jesus is talking specifically Jews about the law.
Almost all of the Gospel preaching of Christ was to Jews.
If that were the excuse for ignoring Christ we would all have a big problem.
Outside of that context the passage has no meaning. In the USA we have no law or tradition about washing cups and hands is a certain fashion. There is law concerning food handling requiring the washing of hands and to my knowledge only applies in the public preparation of foods at eating establishments or food manufacturing places.
Turns out that is not the point of Mark 7.
To use Eph 6:2 as a proof Paul is teaching and requiring Christians to keep the law is absurd in light of Romans and Galatians.
Until you read Eph 6:2 where we are told to keep the 5th Commandment and that this is the FIRST commandment in that unit of Ten "with a promise".