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Referring to sin as screwing up gives me a hint that you might not fully understand the holiness of God, nor the sin of man. If you don't understand the magnitude of the problem then you won't understand the solution either.
Ok, then explain the problem to me then.
What did a newborn baby do, whom dies an hour an after it's born, they are so horrible that they deserve to go straight to Hell?
Ok, then explain the problem to me then.
What did a newborn baby do, whom dies an hour an after it's born, they are so horrible that they deserve to go straight to Hell?
Why is a eight year old hell bound?
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Romans 5:12 covers this, "Therefore, just as sin came into the world through one man, and death through sin, and so death spread to all men because all sinned—"
It's this kind of sentiment that drives people away from mainline Christianity.
Romans 5 drives folks from mainline Christianity? The truth sometimes steps on toes and exposes moral culpability.
It's this kind of sentiment that drives people away from mainline Christianity.
What did a newborn baby do, whom dies an hour an after it's born, they are so horrible that they deserve to go straight to Hell?
I'm not familiar with many mainstream Christian denominations that would argue that an unbaptized infant goes to hell.
I know of two families who were, indeed, told that their infant or toddler was going to Hell because they hadn't been baptized before being killed. (One got out of his playpen and was hit by a vehicle; the other was given alcohol by a third party.)
IIRC, one of the ministers who made the pronouncement was a Lutheran.
So yes, it does, indeed, happen.
This is one of the better discussions of the theological justification of infant baptism from a conservative covenantal Presbyterian perspective:In all of the years I've been doing religious debates (et al), there are a handful of issues that I've not gotten a straight answer on.
This is one of them.
On what basis is the act of infant baptism justified?
The only Biblical justification anyone's ever shown me was a passage talking about "entire households" being baptized, but that's an argument from silence as the ages of the involved aren't given.
I've also not seen any writings from the first few centuries of Christian history supporting the practice; if anything, I've seen more material that could be used to support vicarious baptism than infant baptism.
So - what's the theological justification?
Thanks.
Go back to my earlier posts.
The church holds that by the time a child is 8, they should be able to not only understand right vs. wrong but also why something is right or wrong.
Go back to my earlier posts.
The church holds that by the time a child is 8, they should be able to not only understand right vs. wrong but also why something is right or wrong.
While there is no specific Bible verse that says "infant baptism", there are several that include "and family" or "household". Logic dictates that infants are part of a family or a household and may be included in such baptisms.
It's only silent if the Scripture is referring to only 1 family. I don't believe that. I believe "family" and "household" to be applicable to every family/household who chooses that path. Fathers are the head of the household, according to Scripture. And their decisions effect the whole household, including infants, untii such members make a choice otherwise.Mentioned this in my OP: it's an argument from silence of the type that we Mormons are usually bawled out for making.
Romans 5:12 covers this, "Therefore, just as sin came into the world through one man, and death through sin, and so death spread to all men because all sinned—"
In all of the years I've been doing religious debates (et al), there are a handful of issues that I've not gotten a straight answer on.
This is one of them.
On what basis is the act of infant baptism justified?
The only Biblical justification anyone's ever shown me was a passage talking about "entire households" being baptized, but that's an argument from silence as the ages of the involved aren't given.
I've also not seen any writings from the first few centuries of Christian history supporting the practice; if anything, I've seen more material that could be used to support vicarious baptism than infant baptism.
So - what's the theological justification?
Thanks.
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