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Yes. As I suggested, you can easily look it up online.
You're thinking that this is a case where it would make any difference? I haven't seen any hint of that, but I do agree with you that there are people who are openminded and also might need a little help with the sources.I have discovered that there are folks here who are either unwilling or unable to do their own research, especially when it might prove them wrong. Perhaps you might be willing to go the extra mile in this case and provide some links for him to read it for himself.
Can you offer any evidence for your claims?
Barack Obama graduated from Columbia University, but that is merely like saying that Mary was immaculately conceived.
If you take the immaculate conception and conflate it with the person of Mary it is like taking the institution of education and conflating it with one of its alumni.
You're thinking that this is a case where it would make any difference? I haven't seen any hint of that, but I do agree with you that there are people who are openminded and also might need a little help with the sources.
Or is this merely an oral tradition that you feel comfortable with?
I don't see an analogy between Barak Obama graduating from Columbia University and the woman destined to be God's Mother being conceived immaculately.
Can you provide any specifics or evidence for your idea that the doctrine of the Immaculate Conception "started" in the "Dark Ages"?
Read this from Christianity.com:
'In general Christians insist that any major doctrine must be clearly backed up by some Scripture. Catholics require the same. Yet, as the Catholic Encyclopedia admits: "No direct or categorical and stringent proof of the dogma can be brought forward from Scripture." Edward O'Connor, compiling a massive defense of the belief went even further, acknowledging that the idea was not even a tradition of the early church, coming to the fore about only 1100 AD.
According to O'Connor, the doctrine of the Immaculate Conception was "handicapped by the lack of any clear Scriptural evidence (or, even...any explicit patristic tradition) in its favor, but it even seemed to go counter to the clear teaching of St. Paul...and Christ's own declaration..."
What is more, many of the greatest fathers of the church and its "doctors," explicitly rejected the idea. How could this belief be accepted when it is not taught in Scripture, had at best a weak early tradition, and was explicitly rejected by theologians of the highest rank?
Although the early church recognized that God chose Mary for a special place in His plan, countless sources both east and west show that she was not considered sinless.
and here's an except from an article you can read at Catholic.org:
'This feast was introduced in the West around the 10th century, and it celebrates explicitly the Conception of Mary without original sin. The feast was extended to the universal calendar by Sixtus IV in 1476 with a very beautiful formulation, but sadly reduced to a simple memorial of the "Conception of Mary" in the Missal of 1570.'
Here's an excerpt from the Wikipedia article:
"A feast of the Conception of the Most Holy and All Pure Mother of God was celebrated in Syria on 8 December perhaps as early as the 5th century. Note that the title of achrantos (spotless, immaculate, all-pure) refers to the holiness of Mary, not specifically to the holiness of her conception."
Here's part of the article in cogwriter.com:
"The older feast of the Conception of Mary (Conception of St. Anne), which originated in the monasteries of Palestine at least as early as the seventh century, and the modern feast of the Immaculate Conception are not identical in their object.
Originally the Church celebrated only the Feast of the Conception of Mary, as she kept the Feast of St. John’s conception, not discussing the sinlessness. This feast in the course of centuries became the Feast of the Immaculate Conception, as dogmatical argumentation brought about precise and correct ideas, and as the thesis of the theological schools regarding the preservation of Mary from all stain of original sin gained strength."
And how does this show that the doctrine of the Immaculate Conception "started" in the "Dark Ages"?