SongOnTheWind
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- May 7, 2021
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Is it possible, textually, that end of the age is referring to the end of the old covenant?
Just to be clear, the fact that Jesus mentions the tribulation here, such as has never happened before, nor will it ever happen again, doesn't fit the simple end of the old covenant. That should be that from His resurrection onwards, there would be no more tribulation, and yet how much suffering has the whole world endured since then? Are you saying that when the anti-christ does come and demands that those who refuse to worship him must die, and that no one is allowed to buy or sell except by receiving his mark, that that would not result in tribulation? That that kind of control would not produce unprecedented suffering?
Again, a simple chronology would be useful. Again, if you don't want to give one, that's ok, I can move on from here
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