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I thought that you realized that Hebrew Matthew was written in the 1300's. I thought that you realized that they didn't have the internet back then.
My bad.
Shem tov? What is your point?
(Isa) 43:
11 I, even I, am YHWH; and beside Me there is no savior
Hi LightLoveHope, thanks for sharing your view. What does it mean to "take the Lords name in vain" to you?
Look at the rendering of the name that the Malach instructed to be given to messiah by YHWH; then look at the reason.
If you want to know who "he" is, who will save "his" people;
YesheYahu 43:11 makes it clear; unless you would believe (Yah forbid) that YHWH contradicts himself.
YesheYahu (Isa) 43:
11 I, even I, am YHWH; and beside Me there is no savior
Using or calling upon the Lord in an inappropriate way.
If one would feel ashamed of calling the Lord to a situation, then that is taking the name of the Lord in vain, ie. for show, or verbal expression or exaggeration etc.
On the negative side it is sinful to mock the Lord or challenge Him to do something that you do not believe He will respond to, in a mocking way, for instance as an atheist.
Elijah mocked Baal and the prophets of Baal that they were nothing, and useless.
That is the point right there.That has nothing to do with what the correct Hebrew grammar is...
That has nothing to do with what the correct Hebrew grammar is...
That is the point right there.
What has nothing to do with correct Hebrew grammar?
Are you suggesting the whoever wrote Hebrew Matthew weren't using correct Hebrew Grammar. What was the correct Hebrew Grammar of that day?
Are you denying that Yahshua's name is Theophoric?
No, I am saying the way YOU said it, it wasn't...it is Hebrew and not English. You are trying to force 1 + 1 to equal 11. Of course it is...YESHUA. YeHoshua is theophoric as is YeHonatan. Theophoric prefixes.
Perhaps you missed that kamatz following the yod. Let alone the following he.
View attachment 293391
http://www.bayithamashiyach.com/Hebrew_Interlinear_Mathew.pdf
The Malach is giving the reason that his name will be Yahshua. That what the word "for" means. It's the reason for his given name.
Can you show me where YHWH commands this in scripture?
Perhaps you missed that kamatz following the yod. Let alone the following he.
Please explain what you are talking about. We were talking about the word Yoshia
AHHH, I see where your problem is! You are using an "interlinear" version with nikkud! As you can see they are quite different regarding Yeshua...
So you're saying that this verse doesn't grammatically conform to any of the 14th century Hebrew dialects? I didn't realize that you were that well studied in this field. This is very intriguing. Please break down how this verse is grammatically incorrect for each of the Hebrew dialects of that period; or rather, please give us the correct translation in each dialect for that period. This is the oldest known existing rendering of the Book of Matthew in Hebrew. What manuscript was this manuscript copied from?
I'm talking about Yahshua. What is the root of Yoshia?
We've established that Yahshua's name is Theophoric; no?
Do you deny that Yah is the hyphenated form of our heavenly father's name, YHWH?
If not, add the root of Yoshia, to Yah, for your answer.
Yah saves, or Yah will save.
(CLV) Isa 43:11
I, I am Yahweh, And there is no Saviour apart from Me.
Yah saves us through Yahshua.
I think that I see the deeper problem. It seems that you are applying the rules of Modern Hebrew to the phonetics of Ancient Hebrew.
I think that I see the deeper problem. It seems that you are applying the rules of Modern Hebrew to the phonetics of Ancient Hebrew.
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