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GOD CREATED EVIL, Period!

OzSpen

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Zeena,

There are many points from your post that I could challenge but I don't have the time at the moment at this time of the year. I'll pick up just a couple of your challenges.

1. THE "SCANDAL" OF THE NEW INTERNATIONAL VERSION

The NIV is a dynamic equivalent translation (which is a legitimate translation methodology) and so gives the meaning of the text and not the word-for-word equivalent. I can quibble over a few of the NIV translations (I read and teach NT Greek), but as a general rule, the NIV is a reliable translation. Thus, translating "flesh" as "sinful nature" is a translation of the meaning in some of the passages you quoted.
The Bible is inspired, not infalliable. --> Biblical inerrancy - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
(Tho, I might argue for the infalliability of the original text, what little we have that is)
I don't have the time to give a detailed exposition of the inerrancy/infallibility of the Scriptures in the original text. I refer you to the book edited by Norman L Geisler, Inerrancy (Zondervan 1979) and John W. Montgomery, God's Inerrant Word (Bethany House Publishers 1974). There are a number of articles on line that support this position of inerrancy in the original documents. See: www.bible.org, e.g.
The Bible: The inerrant Word of God
Inerrancy
My take on inerrancy

There is more than one intpretation, obviously.
That happens often when we do not have adequate information about linguistics, culture and context when interpreting Scripture.
For someone to state these facts, as they have come to know and believe, does not disqualify them from participating on Christian forums according to any rules that I'm aware of.
I have not stated or insinuated that. That is not my view.



 
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Zeena

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Hrrm? Are you defending the use of 'flesh' rendered as 'sinful nature' in the NIV?

Because that's is not the meaning, nor the Spirit of the Author.

If it were many passages would read totally differently!

Such as;

Or, are you implying that 'sarx' is a mistype in Kione?
Because we have the Kione, and it says sarx.


Bible Texts Calvinists misuse to attempt to prove "Inherited Sin


What? Nothing from the Apostles or even the first fathers?

There are a number of articles on line that support this position of inerrancy in the original documents. See: www.bible.org, e.g.
The Bible: The inerrant Word of God
Inerrancy
My take on inerrancy
This doctrine is only come about in the last two hundred years!

That happens often when we do not have adequate information about linguistics, culture and context when interpreting Scripture.
So then, which denomination is right?

Galatians 5:6
For in Jesus Christ neither circumcision availeth any thing, nor uncircumcision; but faith which worketh by love.

I have not stated or insinuated that. That is not my view.
OK then, I must appologise for misconstruding your speech.

I am glad you say that you do not hold that view.

And it seems evident our brother took no offense, so again, I appologise.

God bless you.
 
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Zeena

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Then how is someone who has been hardened by sin able to repent?

And more importantly.. Why?
WHY should man repent?
 
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Zeena

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Free will is a delusion. No created being can do anything without God's permission.
This is anti-Scriptural teaching;

Jeremiah 32:35
And they built the high places of Baal, which are in the valley of the son of Hinnom, to cause their sons and their daughters to pass through the fire unto Molech; which I commanded them not, neither came it into my mind, that they should do this abomination, to cause Judah to sin.

And this is EXACTLY what your doctrine of preordination amounts to;

A denial of the free agency of man, and his responsability for his own sins.
Instead, you lay the blame on God, saying He is the cause of all sin in this world!

 
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UnionJack

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GOD DID NOT CREATE EVIL

Evil is the lack of GOOD. Just like how cold is from lack of HEAT. How darkness is from lack of light. You cannot say, turn on the dark please. You can say turn off the lights, in which case you will have darkness. Similiarly, when there is a lack of good (light) there is evil (darkness).
 
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Zeena

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Is it possible for you to exchange the word 'we' for 'I'?

Is it not a personal salvation you are experiencing, being saved from your own sins?

[I will assume the answer is yes, if not, please feel free to correct me]

Why then, the need to blame it all on Adam?

2 Peter 2:11
Whereas angels, which are greater in power and might, bring not railing accusation against them before the Lord.
 
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Zeena

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I believe it is implied in Genesis 3:14.
That Scripture is speaking of the curse of Satan, not man

Genesis 3:14
And the LORD God said unto the serpent, Because thou hast done this, thou art cursed above all cattle, and above every beast of the field; upon thy belly shalt thou go, and dust shalt thou eat all the days of thy life:

I told you it wasn't there.

God never cursed man.
He cursed the ground because of him.

Since Satan was directly cursed, surely Adam and Eve were affected to some degree?
Man is not made in Satan's image, but God's.

Hebrews 2:16-18
For verily he took not on him the nature of angels; but he took on him the seed of Abraham. Wherefore in all things it behoved him to be made like unto his brethren, that he might be a merciful and faithful high priest in things pertaining to God, to make reconciliation for the sins of the people. For in that he himself hath suffered being tempted, he is able to succour them that are tempted.
 
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