And who are you, PaladinValer or anybody else, then, to change the contextual, Biblical definition of "faith" from "faith" in Christ's resurrection from the dead to "trust" in one's parent (s)?
Speaking of "selective quoting", here's your "selective quote" in context:
"Which sometime were disobedient, when once the longsuffering of God waited in the days of Noah, while the ark was a preparing, wherein few, that is, eight souls were saved by water. The like figure whereunto even baptism doth also now save us (not the putting away of the filth of the flesh, but the answer of a good conscience toward God), by the resurrection of Jesus Christ: Who is gone into heaven, and is on the right hand of God; angels and authorities and powers being made subject unto him." - I Peter 3:19-22
The "faith", which you admit, which must accompany baptism for anyone to be saved is clearly a "faith" in regards to the resurrection of Jesus Christ (which is why one is being baptized in the first place...burying their "old man" that they might be "resurrected" or "raised up in newness of life" and be "seated together in heavenly places in Him") Who has gone into heaven and is on the right hand of God; angels and authorities and powers being made subject unto Him. Not only this, but the resulting baptism is directly related to "the answer of a good conscience" of the individual who is being baptized. Seeing how the word "conscience" literally means "with knowledge", who are you, PaladinValer or anybody else to say that baptism can be performed by proxy, totally bypassing the conscience of the one being baptized? Again, who are any of you to change the "faith" which must accompany baptism from "faith" in Christ's resurrection from the dead to an infant's "trust" in its parent (s)? It's heresy, man! Don't any of you have any fear of God?!? Seriously, I tremble for some of you as I watch in horror while you so casually and foolishly wrest the scriptures, as if somehow God approves of the same. He doesn't.
To note that "conscience/joint knowledge (it is the knowledge of the soul, not the mind per se); it is that which is given by God to mankind to distinguish right from wrong ( a joint knowledge between God and man given by God). See its use, for example, in 2 Corinthians 8 and Romans 2:15: " Which shew the work of the law written in their hearts, their conscience also bearing witness, and their thoughts the mean while accusing or else excusing one another". In the Romans passage, it is distinguished from "thoughts" (logismoi, and paralleled with the heart (as a spiritual organ).
The conscience becomes distorted, and then seared by falsehood, etc.:
"Speaking lies in hypocrisy; having their conscience seared with a hot iron ..." 1 Timothy 4:2
The conscience, God given, becomes distorted by disuse and practicing, rationalizing and justifying sin: this process (which undermines faith) is not in force in infants as with adults (as they do not yet use reason to undermine faith, nor to deny God).
The conscience is "maintained" through relationship with God. (Thus, the capacity for relationship is crucial for not only the conscience, but faith as well.)
The "old man" is the "person" created by repeated sin, the rule of the passions (feeding the belly), and whose conscience has been overtaken by the fleshly nous. (None of this is the realm of infancy, as infants have not yet become ruled by fallen passions and repeated sin, especially if they are raised in a Christian household. They certainly can develop this way ... but in baptism are joined to God instead of away from the world and its ruler - who certainly thrives on undermining the conscience ...).
Consider: if the maintenance and development of the conscience is dependent on relationship with God (as it is God given) - then how can this really be done without "putting on Christ" ? Otherwise, the training of children is training in law ( a legal phenomenon), not faith. If the 'rational mind' and the exercising of reasoning is what is required for baptism, how then is baptism
not a work (as it is dependent upon a biological faculty) ? If grace can "change" a deadened mind or conscience, how can grace
not be able to act upon one not yet sullied by embedded practice ?