Few will be saved?

brainstormer

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Many will be called but few chosen. That is what it means. How many people made in into the promised land out of the 40,000? Take the same percentage for the supposed Christians of today and what figure do you come up with? Why? Luke 13:27; 2 Corinthians 11:13


I heard from an educate pastor in Greek it means, "many are called but few are choice" which means few are noble, of good education, which is more congruous with the rest of scripture. God didn't create a hell factory here....Jesus had parables that go along with this, and if you're an educated Christian who is also baptized in the Holy Spirit with evidence of usage of speaking in tongues, you can understand that indeed not many are choice.
 
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1stcenturylady

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That's a very good question and I suppose the answer is based upon whether we will all persevere. In various scriptures salvation is promised to those who persevere, overcome, fight the good fight, finish the race etc. In other scriptures, salvation is described in the present and future tenses - not strictly as a past event. Thus taking the whole of Scripture into account, salvation is a process initiated and is possessed when one first believes but continues as long as one perseveres onto obedience.
Some Christians boldly and confidently predict that they will persevere and not deny Jesus under any and all circumstances. Peter proudly stated the same thing; yet he denied Jesus 3 times and this from a disciple who closely followed the Master up close. If Peter denied the Lord (but later repented and forgiven), can anyone claim that they will never, ever deny the Lord? So to answer your question, I don't know if I'm among the few because perseverance is necessary and my race hasn't finished yet

I like this post. It reminds me of a verse I saw a couple months ago that shook me to my core. I never noticed "the cowardly" before.

Revelation 21:8 But the cowardly, unbelieving, abominable, murderers, sexually immoral, sorcerers, idolaters, and all liars shall have their part in the lake which burns with fire and brimstone, which is the second death.”
 
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Oldmantook

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Read the Epistles.
See in Scripture who knew , and who didn't know, and who was deceived. (it is clearly shown)
i.e. according to YHWH'S WORD.
It may be clearly shown but your reply leaves me befuddled as I don't understand it. You may try again if you wish.
 
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NurseAbigail

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What did Jesus mean when he said "few will be saved?" There are billions of Christians out there! Christianity is the largest religion in the world! So surely many will be saved? What are we missing? Discuss.

Could it be 50/50? Since when Jesus used the examples such as the 10 virgins, only 5 were prepared or the verse were he mentioned two people something, but only one was taken? Matt 24:40-41..
 
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yeshuaslavejeff

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It may be clearly shown but your reply leaves me befuddled as I don't understand it. You may try again if you wish.
For one example, I just looked up "blameless" via biblegateway >>

Philippians 2:15 KJV - That ye may be blameless and harmless ...
Bible Gateway passage: Philippians 2:15 - New International Version...
That ye may be blameless and harmless, the sons of God, without rebuke, in the midst of a crooked and perverse nation, among whom ye shine as lights.

See how simple this is ? i.e. read and believe YHWH according to His Word,
as HE SAYS "
That you may be blameless and harmless..."

Read the context if and as needed - it is all in harmony with all of God's Word.

Likewise, whenever YHWH (GOD) says someone is holy, righteous, faithful, true, "HIS SON"/child .....
BELIEVE HIM - Believe HIS WORD - HIS WORD is TRUTH. JESUS is TRUTH.

Many times in HIS WORD, He Reveals this of His children, to His children.
 
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Acts2:38

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What did Jesus mean when he said "few will be saved?" There are billions of Christians out there! Christianity is the largest religion in the world! So surely many will be saved? What are we missing? Discuss.

Good question few understand when taking Christ's kingdom into consideration.

Anyone can "claim" to be a Christian, but are they really Christians in Christs "body"?

One would have to look at Ephesians 4:4-6. Everyone can see there is only "one" of everything listed there. Let's look particularly at the "one body" and "one baptism".

Are said "Christians" in the "one body"(Eph4:4-6)?

Matthew 16:18-19, Christ promised that Peter would use the "keys" for Christs church/kingdom (used interchangeably in those 2 verses meaning they are one in the same). Notice Christ said "My church" (v18). You see that Peter accomplished this in Acts 2, beginning Christ's church. Furthermore, in Acts 2:47, you see here it is said, "...Lord added to the church...". This tells you there is only one, reinforcing what Eph 4:4-6 was talking about (or vise versa).

We can also take into account Romans 12:4-5 and 1 Corinthians 12 that explain a little more about "one body".

This brings you to the matter of, "Well why are there so many different churches?", which comes to the root of your OP and one of the reasons why Matthew 7:13-14, 21-23 says what it says.

Looking at a first century Christians perspective, they would have no clue what a Catholic is, or who a Baptist is, so on and so forth. Looking in scriptures, you see no authorization for such names either. All you see is, "my church" in which Christ claims it as His, "one body" in Christ, "the churches of Christ salute you" and such examples like so. On top of all this, these unauthorized churches are all man made, man started, and separate in certain areas in what the bible commands of us (Galatians 1:6-9). For example, John Wesley founded the Methodist church. Did Christ found it? No, John Wesley founded it. Therefore, how can it be of Christ's body, His kingdom/church? Simple and short answer is, it is not part of Christ's body.

Now, people on here may read this and get offended and cry to a moderator to delete what I put down here, but this was impossible to get around with the OP asking such a question. The question asked called for this sort of direct answer.

I mentioned a second part previously, "one baptism". If you are not in the Lords church, getting baptized in a church that is not of His body would not do any good for one's self. It would be meaningless for someone to get baptized into a "church" that is not of Christ's body as Christ doesn't recognize that church and its doctrines to which said person is getting baptized into.

As Galatians 3:27 states, " For as many of you as have been baptized into Christ have put on Christ." (KJV). Can a "church" that already wasn't in Christs body to begin with, baptize someone into Christs body, and have them "put on Christ"? Reading scripture, I just see no evidence that this is acceptable and recognized by our Lord.

Notice also that each of these supposed churches vary on their doctrines, which also vary from what Christ taught in the gospel. Then look at 1 Corinthians 1:10.

Paul is begging everyone here. The word "beseech" here is Paul begging with you, me, everyone, that we adhere to what he is stating here.

*Speak the same thing
*No divisions
*Perfectly joined together

In the "same mind and in the same judgment".

In conclusion, the many are indeed doomed. Matthew 7:13-14, 21-23 and Matthew 15:8, all ring true if one wishes to take the gospel's word for it (2 Timothy 3:16). Again, anyone can "claim" to be a Christian, but that doesn't make it true unless they have obeyed the gospel teachings and are in Christs body.
 
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Devin P

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Not true. It is also talking about our liberty in Christ. We can eat whatever we like and we should not judge others if their conscience condemns them for eating certain things. Paul is drawing from our liberty in regards to the Sabbath by saying that one man esteems one day above another. For he that regards that day regards it unto the Lord. The Lord's day is the Sabbath.

5 "One man esteemeth one day above another: another esteemeth every day alike. Let every man be fully persuaded in his own mind.
6 He that regardeth the day, regardeth it unto the Lord...." (Romans 14:5-6).

Your not wanting to see what it plainly says above here because you don't like what it says. Good thing I have no hang ups about what it says (so as to desire to want to change what this text plainly says).

Well, the word sabbath was never once mentioned in that chapter, and even in the entire book of Romans. It wasn't talking about a sabbath day, and if you research the history of it, there was an argument amongst the early believers about which days of the week were best for fasting. Pauls point is, it doesn't matter. Which ever day you fast on, you're doing it to the Father, or not to the Father. Think what you will, but that's the context. Different variations of eating were written 10 times around the verse. It's not just going to talk about eating and not eating, jump to talking about the sabbath randomly, not even mentioning sabbath, and then jump right in the next verse talking about eating and not eating again, come on now, you've got to think here.

You lost me. But that's okay. Paul clearly says that we are to not judge according to Sabbaths. This means you cannot judge according to Sabbaths. Period.
I'm not sure how I lost you. I separated everything with bold font. Re-read it. New moons are how the months are initiated in the hebraic calendar. Why would that apply to a gentile unless they too were observing the new moons for determining their months, as opposed to the sun like every gentile they were surrounded by?

Holy days are made by God, not man - the feast days.

Gentiles believe they can eat all meat, why would they judge those Paul is writing to?

Gentiles highly esteemed alcohol in literally all of their religious celebrations, and in the day to day life, so why would they judge those Paul is writing to? Unless they refrained from getting drunk, or drinking altogether.

The concept of resting a day of the week was foreign to gentiles until Constantine initiated the 1st day sabbath, and most gentiles despised the jews, and felt they were lazy for taking a weekly sabbath, and the yearly sabbaths for the feast days. I'm not sure how I lost you here. It's the history of the time.

My point is, the things Paul wrote about in that verse, literally have nothing to do with gentiles. It's all things from the Torah. Yet, he wrote it to gentiles. Why? Because they were to observe Torah, just as we are today.


Not really.

"For when the Gentiles, which have not the law, do by nature the things contained in the law..."
(Romans 2:14).

Now, what possible law can the Gentiles do by nature within the Law? The ceremonial laws like the Sabbaths or the dietary laws or the laws on animal sacrifices? No. What about the judicial laws? Did they keep the exact prescribed punishments that God gave to the Israelites? No. The only things within the Law that the Gentiles could do by nature is the Moral Law. Today, most people in the Gentile world generally know that murder is wrong, abusing children is wrong, stealing is wrong. This is something instinctual. It is something that they could do by nature.

"But this shall be the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel; After those days, saith the LORD, I will put my law in their inward parts, and write it in their hearts; and will be their God, and they shall be my people." (Jeremiah 31:33).



The Old Testament mentions a three fold structure of God's laws that were for the Old Covenant.
They are called: commandments, statutes (ordinances), and judgments. You will see it several times in OT Scripture.
okay cool, but where does it say moral law? All of it is morally inspired. To have the morals of God. The law is perfect. The law is not a curse. Breaking the law, brings a curse.

No. A lot more was changed besides the priesthood. It says if the priesthood changed, then the Law must be changed, too (Hebrews 7:12). Which Laws? Jesus said to turn the other cheek instead of an eye for an eye. God told Peter to eat unclean animals. All food can be sanctified by the Word of God and prayer now. Circumcision salvationism was condemned by Paul.
Did you read the rest of Hebrews 7?

Hebrews 7:
12 For the priesthood being changed, there is made of necessity a change also of the law.

Why is there of necessity a change of the law? Because, according to the law, ONLY the sons of Aaron, from the tribe of Levi could be priests. And as the next verse shows:

13 For he of whom these things are spoken pertaineth to another tribe, of which no man gave attendance at the altar.
14 For it is evident that our Lord sprang out of Juda; of which tribe Moses spake nothing concerning priesthood.

Then, later in Romans 7, Paul shows us:

Romans 7:20-28
20 And inasmuch as not without an oath he was made priest:

21 (For those priests were made without an oath; but this with an oath by him that said unto him, The Lord sware and will not repent, Thou art a priest for ever after the order of Melchisedec:)
22 By so much was Jesus made a surety of a better testament.
23 And they truly were many priests, because they were not suffered to continue by reason of death:
24 But this man, because he continueth ever, hath an unchangeable priesthood.
25 Wherefore he is able also to save them to the uttermost that come unto God by him, seeing he ever liveth to make intercession for them.
26 For such an high priest became us, who is holy, harmless, undefiled, separate from sinners, and made higher than the heavens;
27 Who needeth not daily, as those high priests, to offer up sacrifice, first for his own sins, and then for the people's: for this he did once, when he offered up himself.
28 For the law maketh men high priests which have infirmity; but the word of the oath, which was since the law, maketh the Son, who is consecrated for evermore.


All Romans 7 talks about is how the priesthood changed. It's why we no longer need to sacrifice, why there aren't such a thing as priests anymore on earth, and that's it. It's why the veil tore when He died. Because, He made it so we can all approach God, our Priest, has cleansed us forever by His death. That Priest is Jesus. This has been in effect since the law was given, as he points out in the last verse. Meaning, that even now, the law still stands, because Jesus is judging according to the law. How do you think we will be judged if the law is done away with? It makes no sense...

When I say that there are consequences, I am saying there are consequences to one's soul in the after life if they break God's Eternal Moral Laws and they do not repent of such a thing.



Yes, I am aware of the quote I made. I know what verse it is. I quoted it all the time. But it is not solely talking about the Laws involving the priesthood. There are many other changes involving God's laws between the Old and the New Covenants. A simple side by side comparison (that is not biased) will easily see these changes.

Can you link the scriptures? Prove that God's Law is done away with. And explain these examples where the apostles are doing in direct contradiction to what you're saying.

Acts 18:21 - But bade them farewell, saying, I must by all means keep this feast that cometh in Jerusalem: but I will return again unto you, if God will. And he sailed from Ephesus.

He was with gentiles here, yet he still observed the Feast of Unleavened Bread

Acts 20:6 - 6And we sailed away from Philippi after the days of unleavened bread, and came unto them to Troas in five days; where we abode seven days.

Which means, he also celebrated Passover, which was the feast he was referring to in Acts 18.

Acts 21:27 - And when the seven days were almost ended, the Jews which were of Asia, when they saw him in the temple, stirred up all the people, and laid hands on him.

(He kept a nazarite vow in Acts 21:27, which includes sacrificing an animal for purification. It's a way to dedicate yourself completely to God. Jews didn't think he was keeping Torah, and that he was teaching gentiles to disregard Torah, and in Acts 21:24, we find out that him teaching gentiles against Torah is not true. That he was in fact keeping Torah, and teaching it, and that the Jews simply were hearing lies about him)

There's also where Paul wrote to Gentiles in 2 Timothy chapter 3

2 Timothy 3:16-17 - 16All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness: 17That the man of God may be perfect, throughly furnished unto all good works.

All scripture. Think about this... the new testament hadn't even been written yet. All they had was the Tanakh (the old testament).

He circumcised Timothy. And even gave us instructions on how to celebrate unleavened bread in 1st corinthians. "Not with the old leaven of malice, etc." basically redefining the intent of the weightier intentions of the law. How through keeping it we're no better than those that don't, etc, etc.
 
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Devin P

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I am not going to endlessly debate God's laws with you. You believe the way you do for your own reasons. I am interested in what God's Word says plainly. If the Sabbath or Sabbaths were binding under the New Covenant, then we would need a clear command telling us this. There is not even an indirect command suggesting such a thing under the New Testament.
There never was a clear commandment doing away with it, and the apostles kept over 80 of the biblical sabbaths in Acts alone. I'm not sure what more one would need.

Not only that, but they wrote about keeping the feasts and the sabbaths therein as well throughout the rest of the NT. A sabbath isn't just the 7th day, there are also sabbaths in the holy days God gave us. (Because Sukkot, atonement, trumpets, etc. are all sabbaths as well.)

Jesus fulfilled the first 4 spring feasts when He first came.

Passover: His death.
Unleavened Bread: His burial.
First Fruits: His resurrection.
Pentecost: The outpouring of the Holy Spirit.

The next three, that He's to fulfill:

Trumpets: His return.
Atonement: Judgement.
Tabernacles: Living among us on earth during the millennial reign.

If they were done away with, then why does He still have to fulfill the last 3 feast days? We keep the feasts, because it's practice for when He returns. He will come back on trumpets, this is why we know the season, but not the day or the hour. (Because the devil has destroyed the accuracy of the biblical calendar, leap years, gregorian calendars, etc.)
 
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Adzinfi

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Did you not use 3 examples ?
In one example, 8 people were saved.
In another example, 3 people were saved.
Yet in the 3rd example, NOT ONLY 2 were saved, but everyone who had been under 20 years old was 'saved' along with Joshua and Caleb.
Simple.
As it is written.
Wow you really like to MISS THE POINT.
 
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samir

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What did Jesus mean when he said "few will be saved?" There are billions of Christians out there! Christianity is the largest religion in the world! So surely many will be saved? What are we missing? Discuss.

Billions identify as Christians but that does not mean they're actually Christian. I've seen survey results that show some "Christians" don't even believe in God. Many "Christians" where I live have less morals (more arrogant and judgmental) than atheists and other non-religious people.
 
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What did Jesus mean when he said "few will be saved?" There are billions of Christians out there! Christianity is the largest religion in the world! So surely many will be saved? What are we missing? Discuss.
My guess is it's the % of the total population that ever lived and will live. From a % statistic point of view, it seems like only a few are saved even if that number runs into billions. Peace in Christ :).
 
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GUANO

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What did Jesus mean when he said "few will be saved?" There are billions of Christians out there! Christianity is the largest religion in the world! So surely many will be saved? What are we missing? Discuss.

Obviously it must mean the opposite of what it says because so many people say they are Christians today and Luke was targeting a specific audience and the bible says in 4th John 79:11 that "anyone who simply claims to be a Christian is automatically saved and Luke was a liar"
 
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GUANO

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The book of Revelation says that there is a multitude in which no man can count, some say that must mean billions but the highest number any human has ever been recorded counting to was good old Jeremy Harper who counted for 16 hours a day for almost 3 months straight and only made it to one million.... take that for what it's worth...
 
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SkyWriting

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What did Jesus mean when he said "few will be saved?" There are billions of Christians out there! Christianity is the largest religion in the world! So surely many will be saved? What are we missing? Discuss.

"Not enough" will be saved. You need to consider Jesus
speaking from God's point of view sometimes.
 
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Well, the word sabbath was never once mentioned in that chapter, and even in the entire book of Romans. It wasn't talking about a sabbath day, and if you research the history of it, there was an argument amongst the early believers about which days of the week were best for fasting. Pauls point is, it doesn't matter. Which ever day you fast on, you're doing it to the Father, or not to the Father. Think what you will, but that's the context. Different variations of eating were written 10 times around the verse. It's not just going to talk about eating and not eating, jump to talking about the sabbath randomly, not even mentioning sabbath, and then jump right in the next verse talking about eating and not eating again, come on now, you've got to think here.


I'm not sure how I lost you. I separated everything with bold font. Re-read it. New moons are how the months are initiated in the hebraic calendar. Why would that apply to a gentile unless they too were observing the new moons for determining their months, as opposed to the sun like every gentile they were surrounded by?

Holy days are made by God, not man - the feast days.

Gentiles believe they can eat all meat, why would they judge those Paul is writing to?

Gentiles highly esteemed alcohol in literally all of their religious celebrations, and in the day to day life, so why would they judge those Paul is writing to? Unless they refrained from getting drunk, or drinking altogether.

The concept of resting a day of the week was foreign to gentiles until Constantine initiated the 1st day sabbath, and most gentiles despised the jews, and felt they were lazy for taking a weekly sabbath, and the yearly sabbaths for the feast days. I'm not sure how I lost you here. It's the history of the time.

My point is, the things Paul wrote about in that verse, literally have nothing to do with gentiles. It's all things from the Torah. Yet, he wrote it to gentiles. Why? Because they were to observe Torah, just as we are today.


okay cool, but where does it say moral law? All of it is morally inspired. To have the morals of God. The law is perfect. The law is not a curse. Breaking the law, brings a curse.

Did you read the rest of Hebrews 7?

Hebrews 7:
12 For the priesthood being changed, there is made of necessity a change also of the law.

Why is there of necessity a change of the law? Because, according to the law, ONLY the sons of Aaron, from the tribe of Levi could be priests. And as the next verse shows:

13 For he of whom these things are spoken pertaineth to another tribe, of which no man gave attendance at the altar.
14 For it is evident that our Lord sprang out of Juda; of which tribe Moses spake nothing concerning priesthood.

Then, later in Romans 7, Paul shows us:

Romans 7:20-28
20 And inasmuch as not without an oath he was made priest:

21 (For those priests were made without an oath; but this with an oath by him that said unto him, The Lord sware and will not repent, Thou art a priest for ever after the order of Melchisedec:)
22 By so much was Jesus made a surety of a better testament.
23 And they truly were many priests, because they were not suffered to continue by reason of death:
24 But this man, because he continueth ever, hath an unchangeable priesthood.
25 Wherefore he is able also to save them to the uttermost that come unto God by him, seeing he ever liveth to make intercession for them.
26 For such an high priest became us, who is holy, harmless, undefiled, separate from sinners, and made higher than the heavens;
27 Who needeth not daily, as those high priests, to offer up sacrifice, first for his own sins, and then for the people's: for this he did once, when he offered up himself.
28 For the law maketh men high priests which have infirmity; but the word of the oath, which was since the law, maketh the Son, who is consecrated for evermore.


All Romans 7 talks about is how the priesthood changed. It's why we no longer need to sacrifice, why there aren't such a thing as priests anymore on earth, and that's it. It's why the veil tore when He died. Because, He made it so we can all approach God, our Priest, has cleansed us forever by His death. That Priest is Jesus. This has been in effect since the law was given, as he points out in the last verse. Meaning, that even now, the law still stands, because Jesus is judging according to the law. How do you think we will be judged if the law is done away with? It makes no sense...



Can you link the scriptures? Prove that God's Law is done away with. And explain these examples where the apostles are doing in direct contradiction to what you're saying.

Acts 18:21 - But bade them farewell, saying, I must by all means keep this feast that cometh in Jerusalem: but I will return again unto you, if God will. And he sailed from Ephesus.

He was with gentiles here, yet he still observed the Feast of Unleavened Bread

Acts 20:6 - 6And we sailed away from Philippi after the days of unleavened bread, and came unto them to Troas in five days; where we abode seven days.

Which means, he also celebrated Passover, which was the feast he was referring to in Acts 18.

Acts 21:27 - And when the seven days were almost ended, the Jews which were of Asia, when they saw him in the temple, stirred up all the people, and laid hands on him.

(He kept a nazarite vow in Acts 21:27, which includes sacrificing an animal for purification. It's a way to dedicate yourself completely to God. Jews didn't think he was keeping Torah, and that he was teaching gentiles to disregard Torah, and in Acts 21:24, we find out that him teaching gentiles against Torah is not true. That he was in fact keeping Torah, and teaching it, and that the Jews simply were hearing lies about him)

There's also where Paul wrote to Gentiles in 2 Timothy chapter 3

2 Timothy 3:16-17 - 16All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness: 17That the man of God may be perfect, throughly furnished unto all good works.

All scripture. Think about this... the new testament hadn't even been written yet. All they had was the Tanakh (the old testament).

He circumcised Timothy. And even gave us instructions on how to celebrate unleavened bread in 1st corinthians. "Not with the old leaven of malice, etc." basically redefining the intent of the weightier intentions of the law. How through keeping it we're no better than those that don't, etc, etc.

As I said before, I am not going to endlessly debate God's laws with you.
 
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There never was a clear commandment doing away with it, and the apostles kept over 80 of the biblical sabbaths in Acts alone. I'm not sure what more one would need.

Not only that, but they wrote about keeping the feasts and the sabbaths therein as well throughout the rest of the NT. A sabbath isn't just the 7th day, there are also sabbaths in the holy days God gave us. (Because Sukkot, atonement, trumpets, etc. are all sabbaths as well.)

Jesus fulfilled the first 4 spring feasts when He first came.

Passover: His death.
Unleavened Bread: His burial.
First Fruits: His resurrection.
Pentecost: The outpouring of the Holy Spirit.

The next three, that He's to fulfill:

Trumpets: His return.
Atonement: Judgement.
Tabernacles: Living among us on earth during the millennial reign.

If they were done away with, then why does He still have to fulfill the last 3 feast days? We keep the feasts, because it's practice for when He returns. He will come back on trumpets, this is why we know the season, but not the day or the hour. (Because the devil has destroyed the accuracy of the biblical calendar, leap years, gregorian calendars, etc.)

Not going to endlessly debate God's laws with you.
 
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Neostarwcc

We are saved purely by the work and grace of God.
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"Not every one that saith unto me, Lord, Lord, shall enter into the kingdom of heaven; but he that doeth the will of my Father which is in heaven." (Matthew 7:21)

Exactly. We learn the will of the Father in John 6:40:

"For my Father's will is that everyone who looks to the Son and believes in him shall have eternal life, and I will raise them up at the last day."

Seems pretty straightforward to me. Those unsaved people you were talking about were people who didn't believe in Jesus and instead trusted in their own works to save them. Which is why the next few verses say "Haven't we done many wonderful works?" and if you don't believe in Jesus, Jesus will deny you. Which is why I was asking the question in the first place. There are many people who believe in Jesus and accept Christ as their savior. So why did Christ say few would be saved? The questions been answered though. When you think of it in the percentage of people who have walked the Earth It's a very small percentage of people. Very simple answer to a very simple question.
 
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he-man

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I heard from an educate pastor in Greek it means, "many are called but few are choice" which means few are noble, of good education, which is more congruous with the rest of scripture. God didn't create a hell factory here....Jesus had parables that go along with this, and if you're an educated Christian who is also baptized in the Holy Spirit with evidence of usage of speaking in tongues, you can understand that indeed not many are choice.
εκλεκτος = Strong's 1588 meaning elect; picked out; choice; select see Isaiah 43:20 "my people, my elect
 
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