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For example, all the laws concerning the rites of the sacrificial system.Please give an example, if you wish, of a law that is left out when a person considers all of the commandments.
For example, all the laws concerning the rites of the sacrificial system.
Not sure what you mean by overthrow or overrule. The Mosaic Law was till Christ (it was its purpose) and as such, is not for us (who live after Christ) anymore.
"Before the coming of this faith, we were held in custody under the law...
So the law was our guardian until Christ came...
Now that this faith has come, we are no longer under a guardian."
Gal 3:23-25
"But now, by dying to what once bound us, we have been released from the law so that we serve in the new way
of the Spirit, and not in the old way of the written code."
R 7:6
"So, my brothers, you also died to the law through the body of Christ, that you might belong to another"
R 7:4
Exactly!!!No, there are other Commandments outside of the 10 that also have a promise that occur before the 10 are listed.
"Do not take Gods name in vain" Ex 20:7 got "deleted at the cross"???Not sure what you mean by overthrow or overrule. The Mosaic Law was till Christ (it was its purpose) and as such, is not for us (who live after Christ) anymore.
Where there is no law there is no sin. Romans 4:15 Sin is the transgression of God's law 1 John 3:4 Romans 7:7This is a logical fallacy. The Mosaic Law is not deleted, its fulfilled. Its purpose was to keep the nation of Israel prepared for the birth of Christ.
It does not mean that all good moral principles are now erased or something. Its still wrong to murder, to steal, to lie etc. It was wrong before the Mosaic Law, outside the Mosaic Law and also is wrong after the Mosaic Law.
However, many shadowy parts of the Mosaic Law do not continue for Christians. For example "eye for an eye", "you will not let a witch to live", "do not trim the sides of your head", "circumcise your boys" or "keep the Sabbath day".
Sin is transgression of the law 1 John 3:4The verse is actually:
Where there is no law there is no transgression.
R 4:15 (NIV)
The word parábasis means transgression. The verse means that if there is no law, there is no transgression [of the law]. Which makes perfect sense.
Sin, of course, has existed before the Mosaic Law and exists after the Mosaic Law, too.
P.S. What Bible translation says "sin"? I cannot find any on biblehub.com. Was it just your personal edit of the Bible like that of BobRyan's in the post Example: Affirming the Sabbath Commandment while denying its detail --
So everyone doesn’t mean everyone and sin is the transgression of the law does doesn't mean that because you say so. I think I will stick with the scriptures.Transgression is transgression. Do not change the Bible to fit your ideology.
Regarding 1 John, you know that the author uses "everyone" not in a technical sense, right?
"you know that everyone who does what is right has been born of him." 1J 2:29 (NIV)
"everyone who sins breaks the law" 1J 3:4 (NIV)
"everyone who loves has been born of God and knows God" 1J 4:7 (NIV)
"everyone who believes that Jesus is the Christ is born of God" 1J 5:1 (NIV)
"Demetrius is well spoken of by everyone" 3J 12 (NIV)
Similarly with the authors's usage of "whoever", "anyone" etc.
No misquote 1 John 3:4 Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law.Stick with the Scriptures, I will welcome it, because it will save time not needing to correct your misquotes.
"sin is the transgression of the law does doesn't mean that" is another misquote, its actually: "sin is lawlessness."
KJV is an antiquated translation. They did not know quite a few of Greek rules on their foggy English island.No misquote 1 John 3:4 Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law.
And what in your mind is the difference between sin is lawlessness or sin is transgression of the law.
So now the KJV is antiquated - There is a law that defines sin Paul shows us as does Jesus Romans 7:7, Mat 5:19-30 who I trust over man made interpretations. You also never answered the question, because there is no difference. Sin is breaking God’s law. Paul and Jesus point to the law that is sin when broken.KJV is an antiquated translation. They did not know quite a few of Greek rules on their foggy English island.
The difference is in the "the" article. John is not talking about any specific law, like the Mosaic Law. The part "of the law" is not in the Greek. Check it out and update your list of proof verses.
Actually for a while already.So now the KJV is antiquated
Thats all fine, sin can be defined by a specific set of commandments, i.e. by some law, like the Mosaic law. Nothing against that. But to say that sin does not exist without such a legal proclaimed document is nonsense. Remember Cain?- There is a law that defines sin Paul shows us as does Jesus Romans 7:7, Mat 5:19-30
Thats great, if true. But your usage of Scriptures is quite obviously influenced by the SDA websites you use and sometimes even with simply copy&paste. SDA authors are men, including the woman E. White.who I trust over man made interpretations.
The word "never" is not used properly, here.You also never answered the question, because there is no difference. Sin is breaking God’s law.
Thats all fine, if you have been given a law to keep, its a sin to break it. But it does not mean you cannot sin in some other way, not mentioned in that law.Paul and Jesus point to the law that is sin when broken.
Actually, its possible, as I am reasoning with you for some time already, correcting your misquotes, antiquated translations and generally logical and rhetorical missteps.It’s impossible to reason with one who thinks their opinions are equal to scripture
daq - Thanks for catching that --@BobRyan, the video in your opening post is set to begin playing at the 16:29 mark. Is that your intent? meaning you are only asking that we watch the video from that point to the end? That's what I did, but I just want to make sure I am not missing anything from before that point because I did not watch it from the beginning.
fail.KJV is an antiquated translation. They did not know quite a few of Greek rules on their foggy English island.
His talking about God's Law.The difference is in the "the" article. John is not talking about any specific law
New International VersionSin is transgression of the law 1 John 3:4
No law- no transgressions (sin)
So also is the author of your post and mine.SDA authors are men, including the woman E. White.
I love seeing God’s promises in action. 11 years added exactly what was kept faithfully. I knew SDA’s lived longer but never thought to break it down the way the pastor did and he is not even SDA!So also is the author of your post and mine.
Watch the video in the OP-- you may find some help there since that is not an SDA pastor.
OK... Are those laws Commandments? If so, and if they are left out, then how is the person considering all of the Commandments?For example, all the laws concerning the rites of the sacrificial system.
Because you say the 10 commandments and ceremonial laws are all God's laws as if they were all written on stone by the finger of God.OK... Are those laws Commandments? If so, and if they are left out, then how is the person considering all of the Commandments?
Please expound on that new way of understanding and walking.Our freedom or liberty in Meshiah is the new Way of understanding and walking in the Torah-Word-Instruction of the Father...
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