Easter According to Daniel

[Christian Gedge]

A fresh look at the ‘seventy weeks’ prophecy. Jesus of Nazareth is revealed as the Anointed One who finished transgression, made an end of sins, and reconciled us to God.

I bought this message to our church in Easter 2019, and have only now got it on the Internet for 2023. We were doing a series. We were covering the basics so that a broad audience could enjoy the visions of Daniel without getting bogged down with debates. However, discussion is welcome on the forum. Enjoy.

 

[Christian Gedge]

As we know, Jesus was crucified on Passover. So, the Jewish Passover and Christian Easter are related, Christ’s atonement being the final sacrifice.

What is not so well known is how Daniel foretold of this in his famous 70-week prophecy. It has been obscured by our teaching that the six goals of the seventieth week were postponed until Jesus’ second coming. This video deals with the first four of those goals:

1. To finish the transgression
2. To make an end of sins
3. To make reconciliation for iniquity
4. To bring in everlasting righteousness

I thought Easter would be a good time to discuss it.

 

[DavidPT]

As we know, Jesus was crucified on Passover. So, the Jewish Passover and Christian Easter are related, Christ’s atonement being the final sacrifice.

What is not so well known is how Daniel foretold of this in his famous 70-week prophecy. It has been obscured by our teaching that the six goals of the seventieth week were postponed until Jesus’ second coming. This video deals with the first four of those goals:

1. To finish the transgression
2. To make an end of sins
3. To make reconciliation for iniquity
4. To bring in everlasting righteousness

I thought Easter would be a good time to discuss it.

You would think, if the 70th week is supposed to be applied like you are applying it, which then means the entire 70 weeks ended in the first century, Jews should have been celebrating or something. But all I see evidence of what was happening at the time, meaning when the 70 weeks initially allegedly ended, not anyone celebrating, but instead being persecuted and some being killed. And then like I have pointed out in the past, since one of those 6 things listed in Daniel 9:24 involves finishing the transgression concerning the holy city, how then is it reasonable that that was finished concerning the holy city, then some 40 years later this same holy city is attacked and destroyed? That equals that the transgression concerning the holy city was finished 40 years earlier, exactly how??


Daniel 9:24 Seventy weeks are determined upon thy people and upon thy holy city, to finish the transgression , and to make an end of sins, and to make reconciliation for iniquity, and to bring in everlasting righteousness, and to seal up the vision and prophecy, and to anoint the most Holy.

 

[keras]

Daniel 9:24 Seventy sevens are decreed for your people and your holy city – to finish transgression, to put an end to sin, to atone for wickedness, to bring in everlasting righteousness, vision and prophecy ratified and the Most Holy place anointed.

Daniel 9:25-27 Know and understand this: From the issuing of the decree to restore and rebuild Jerusalem, until the Anointed One, the ruler comes – there will be seven sevens and sixty two sevens. It will be rebuilt with streets and drains, but in troubled times. After the 62 sevens, the Anointed One will be cut off and will have nothing. The people of the ruler who will come, will destroy the city and sanctuary. The end will come like a flood. War will continue until the end, and desolations have been decreed. He will confirm a covenant with the many for one ‘seven’. In the middle of the seven, he will put an end to the sacrifice and offering. In the Temple, he will set up an abomination that causes desolation, until the end that is decreed is poured out upon him.

Verse 24 - The Angel Gabriel’s message for the end of this age:

1/To complete and finalize the transgressions of the wicked peoples.[Time of the Gentiles]

2/ To make an end to disobedience against God. [Punishment of His enemies]

3/ To make reconciliation for iniquity. [Redemption for His righteous people]

4/ To usher in the age of Righteousness. [The Christians– ‘a light to the nations’]

5/ To fulfil prophesy. [The promises to the Patriarchs and to all 12 tribe Israel]

6/ To sanctify the Temple. [The Third Temple, built by the Lord’s holy people of Beulah; Isaiah 62:1-5]



Verse 25: 70 times 7 = 490 years. The first 7 ‘weeks’ = 49 years, starts from the commandment to rebuild Jerusalem in the 20th year of the reign of Artaxerxes. This was in 445BC. Jerusalem’s walls and streets were rebuilt ‘even in troublous times’. As Nehemiah and Ezra describe.

Verse 26 Then another 62 ‘weeks’ = 434 years, plus the 49, makes a total of 483 prophetic years until ‘Messiah, the Prince, is cut off’.

‘There shall be nothing for Him’, means that at that time He did not receive the Millennium Kingdom. ‘The people of the ruler to come, will destroy Jerusalem, including the Temple’, refers to the Roman destruction in 69/70AD.

Then, there has been a gap of nearly 2000 years, till the present day.

The end period; the 70th of the 7 ‘weeks’ = 7 years will be made up of 2 periods of 1260 days each. It will be the closing time of this age, ‘the end shall be with a flood’.
Flood is better translated as – an overflowing; of troubles. 2 Thessalonians 2:8

Verse 27 The Anti Christ will make a 7 year treaty with the ‘many’. That is, the holy people of God: every born again Christian, living in their own Land. There will be a faithful group who will oppose this agreement, so this treaty is made with many, but not all of His people, the Christian Israelites of God. Daniel 11:32, Isaiah 28:14-15.

The Anti-Christ will break this after 1260 days, Daniel 7:25, Revelation 13:1-8, which will commence the Great Tribulation. He sets up his own image in the Temple, 2 Thessalonians 2:4, then after the final 1260 days, he will meet his end. Daniel 11:45, Revelation 19:20.

 

[Christian Gedge]

You would think, if the 70th week is supposed to be applied like you are applying it, which then means the entire 70 weeks ended in the first century, Jews should have been celebrating or something.

Jews made up the early church as you know especially during the last half of the 70th week. And they were celebrating for sure!

“Every day they continued to meet together in the temple courts. They broke bread in their homes and ate together with glad and sincere hearts, praising God and enjoying the favour of all the people,” (Acts 2:45-46).​

​

“While he blessed them, he parted from them and was carried up into heaven. And they worshiped him and returned to Jerusalem with great joy.” (Luke 24:51-52)​

 

[Christian Gedge]

Let’s start with the first goal of the 70th week. The Cross of Christ finished transgression for those who believe so the demands of law do not have to be charged against them.


This is the legal basis of justification. Does it mean no one sinned after the Cross? Of course not, but the systematic code of written law, as given to Moses, has been abolished! Therefore, when the accuser brings his charge against a believer, God throws it out because that man belongs under grace. He is no longer under the former law, and for him the law has no authority to condemn.

“To the one who does not work but believes in him who justifies the ungodly, his faith is counted as righteousness, just as David also speaks of the blessing of the one to whom God counts righteousness apart from works: "Blessed are those whose lawless deeds are forgiven, and whose sins are covered; blessed is the man against whom the Lord will not count his sin." (Romans 4:5-8)​

Some on Christian forums argue, “if a believer sins, how can there be no transgression?” It is because God does not impute (charge) sin to his account. Let it not be said, however, that He cheapens justice by flicking pardons with no respect to law at all. “But He (Christ) was wounded for our transgressions.” What happened was that up until the Cross, the law required mandatory judgment upon all who transgressed it. After the atonement, however - after Messiah met the law’s demands - he effectively ended the law for those who believe, because his sacrifice paid the penalty for all transgression over all time. (PTL)


And that is what Daniel meant; “Seventy weeks are determined for your people and for your holy city ... to finish the transgression.”

 

[keras]

Some on Christian forums argue, “if a believer sins, how can there be no transgression?”

Your premise is right, in that a true believer cannot lose their redemption and place with Jesus. Demonstrated in 1 Corinthians 3:9-15, which shows how those who do fail in their 'works', in their deeds; will remain saved. But only just!
However; there are scriptures saying that people can be erased from the Book of Life, so I do see it as possible for a believer to renounce their faith and lose Salvation. I personally know of people like that. Psalms 60:26-28

So it is obvious that 'transgression' remains in the world, caused by Christians and the ungodly.
Therefore; from the first point of Angel Gabriel's Prophecy - the Seventieth 'week' remains unfulfilled.

 

[grafted branch]

So it is obvious that 'transgression' remains in the world, caused by Christians and the ungodly.
Therefore; from the first point of Angel Gabriel's Prophecy - the Seventieth 'week' remains unfulfilled.

Well, if that’s true then the end of transgression doesn’t happen until after Satans little season, after the millennium. Which would mean the 70th week doesn’t get fulfilled until after the millennium. Is this you view?

 

[Timtofly]

Well, if that’s true then the end of transgression doesn’t happen until after Satans little season, after the millennium. Which would mean the 70th week doesn’t get fulfilled until after the millennium. Is this you view?

Your point does not point out nor prove a transgression in Revelation 20. That is only your added thoughts into Scripture.

Just like your added thoughts claiming there was no transgression period after the Cross.

Two church members died while lying to the Holy Spirit after the Cross. Is lying a transgression?

Physical death has always been the end to an individual's transgression. How many people go about sinning in sheol?

Did Ananias and Sapphira keep sinning after they were dead? All those already dead no longer sin, but that does not mean the 70th week of Daniel has been fulfilled.

This was written after the Cross:

"If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us. If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins, and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness. If we say that we have not sinned, we make him a liar, and his word is not in us."

How does that make this verse true if you state it is a reality and fulfulled at the Cross:

"Seventy weeks are determined upon thy people and upon thy holy city, to finish the transgression, and to make an end of sins, and to make reconciliation for iniquity, and to bring in everlasting righteousness."

I get the symbolic point that the Cross accomplished that from God's perspective. But the verse does not say:

"Seventy weeks are determined upon God and upon God's holy city, to finish the transgression, and to make an end of sins, and to make reconciliation for iniquity, and to bring in everlasting righteousness."

God was not the one going around transgressing. This is what Daniel was doing:

"And whiles I was speaking, and praying, and confessing my sin and the sin of my people Israel, and presenting my supplication before the Lord my God for the holy mountain of my God."

These sins of Israel is what Daniel was specifically praying about and got an answer from God. While the Cross made that physically possible, the Cross did not stop, nor complete the 70 weeks that would happen to Israel.

The Cross was the point Messiah was cut off. The Prince to come part would finish the 70 weeks.

"Know therefore and understand, that from the going forth of the commandment to restore and to build Jerusalem unto the Messiah the Prince shall be seven weeks, and threescore and two weeks: the street shall be built again, and the wall, even in troublous times."

Paul knew this and that is why he stated, Israel would be set aside until the fullness of the Gentiles comes in. Then and only then would the Prince part finish out the 70th week: after the fulness of the Gentiles.

Then and only then would Daniel's people, Israel see those promises a reality. Not just the symbolism of what the Second Birth brings. The Second Birth is part of the restoration of Adam's disobedience. Adam's punishment has not been declared over either, and Adam's punishment ending is also the end of sin on the earth. Adam's punishment did not end at the Cross either. The debt was paid in full, but that was always the case as the Lamb slain from God's perspective happened prior to the creation it would physically happen in. Daniel's 70 weeks were also fulfilled in the same process prior to creation. But the reality for humanity, would not be until after the Second Coming and the Prince brings about those promises into physical creation.

 

[Marilyn C]

Let’s start with the first goal of the 70th week. The Cross of Christ finished transgression for those who believe so the demands of law do not have to be charged against them.


This is the legal basis of justification. Does it mean no one sinned after the Cross? Of course not, but the systematic code of written law, as given to Moses, has been abolished! Therefore, when the accuser brings his charge against a believer, God throws it out because that man belongs under grace. He is no longer under the former law, and for him the law has no authority to condemn.

“To the one who does not work but believes in him who justifies the ungodly, his faith is counted as righteousness, just as David also speaks of the blessing of the one to whom God counts righteousness apart from works: "Blessed are those whose lawless deeds are forgiven, and whose sins are covered; blessed is the man against whom the Lord will not count his sin." (Romans 4:5-8)​

Some on Christian forums argue, “if a believer sins, how can there be no transgression?” It is because God does not impute (charge) sin to his account. Let it not be said, however, that He cheapens justice by flicking pardons with no respect to law at all. “But He (Christ) was wounded for our transgressions.” What happened was that up until the Cross, the law required mandatory judgment upon all who transgressed it. After the atonement, however - after Messiah met the law’s demands - he effectively ended the law for those who believe, because his sacrifice paid the penalty for all transgression over all time. (PTL)


And that is what Daniel meant; “Seventy weeks are determined for your people and for your holy city ... to finish the transgression.”

Hi CG,

Remember God is speaking to the NATION of ISRAEL. Thus the `transgression` is NATIONAL REBELLION. And that was the reason God had them in exile 70 years, for not keeping the Sabbath rests, (2 Chron. 36: 21) and then 70 x 7 years for ALL the days that Israel rebelled, (490 days). This is called the `chastisement. ` This is for National rebellion against God for all that time.

God will bring that to and end when the Lord comes and reveals Himself to the people of Jerusalem at the end of the trib. (Zech. 12: 7 - 10)

 

[Christian Gedge]

Hi CG,

Remember God is speaking to the NATION of ISRAEL. Thus the `transgression` is NATIONAL REBELLION.

Hi Marilyn.

It may come as a surprise to you, but the ending of the 70th week is all about Gentiles. Such an idea appears contradictory at first because the angel spoke of ‘your people’ when referring to Daniel’s people, the Jews. Yes, the angel said, “Seventy weeks are determined for your people ...” but that is the whole point. Israel is about the Gentiles! Israel was the vehicle so to speak, by which salvation would come to the world, for that is what was ultimately in God’s mind.

So, when he says, “Seventy weeks are determined for Israel,” God means 490 years will pass and then the atonement:- transgression finished; sins taken away; reconciliation etc. The destiny of Israel climaxes with good news to the world! Accordingly, St. Peter said to the Jews:

“Men of Israel … you are heirs of the prophets and of the covenant God made with your fathers. He said to Abraham, ‘Through your offspring all peoples on earth will be blessed.’ When God raised up his servant, he sent him first to you to bless you by turning each of you from your wicked ways.” (Acts 3:25-26)​

In other words, he confirmed the covenant by guaranteeing first option to the children of the covenant then afterward by granting the good news to the Gentiles as he had promised all those years before. Here is St Paul on the same theme:

“For I tell you that Christ became a servant to the circumcised to show God’s truthfulness, in order to confirm the promises given to the patriarchs, and in order that the Gentiles might glorify God for his mercy. As it is written, “Therefore I will praise you among the Gentiles, and sing to your name.” (Romans 15:8-9)​

 

[keras]

Well, if that’s true then the end of transgression doesn’t happen until after Satans little season, after the millennium. Which would mean the 70th week doesn’t get fulfilled until after the millennium. Is this you view?

The 70th 'week' of 7 years will be over when Jesus Returns.

As only the faithful people of God will go into the Millennium with Jesus, then transgression is over, as Satan will be unable to deceive anyone.
Satan is released for a short while after the Millennium, so there is actually more transgression, which God allows in order to finally sort out the righteous from the rebels.

 

[grafted branch]

The 70th 'week' of 7 years will be over when Jesus Returns.

As only the faithful people of God will go into the Millennium with Jesus, then transgression is over, as Satan will be unable to deceive anyone.
Satan is released for a short while after the Millennium, so there is actually more transgression, which God allows in order to finally sort out the righteous from the rebels.

Daniel 9:24 says to finish the transgression. Finish is <3607> which means to shut up, restrain, withhold.

I suppose you could argue that the 490 years were determined for only a temporary reprieve of the Daniel 9:24 goals, but the word finish <3607> was only used for transgression.

The next goal is to make an end of sins. “To make an end” is <8552> tama, which means to be complete or finish. I don’t see any way sin committed by people can be completely ended until after Satans little season.

 

[grafted branch]

Your point does not point out nor prove a transgression in Revelation 20. That is only your added thoughts into Scripture.

So is it ok to currently be deceived by Satan? Can someone be deceived by Satan and also be without transgression or sin? If so can you provide scripture to support this idea?

 

[DavidPT]

Well, if that’s true then the end of transgression doesn’t happen until after Satans little season, after the millennium. Which would mean the 70th week doesn’t get fulfilled until after the millennium. Is this you view?

I definitely see your point here and how this might cause a problem for Premil in particular. Except I don't take, for example--to make an end of sins--to literally mean all sinning has to literally stop altogether in order for this to be fulfilled.

That aside.


and for the overspreading of abominations he shall make it desolate, even until the consummation, and that determined shall be poured upon the desolate.


Obviously, the fact this is mentioned in verse 27, this undeniably indicates it is something involving the 70th week, the 2nd half in this case. Explain how that part was fulfilled within 3.5 years of Christ's death. If it wasn't for this part I might agree that the entire 70 weeks have been fulfilled. My conscience won't let me agree, because to agree, the fact this part is undeniably involving the 2nd half of the 70th week, is to then apply this to Christ, which is ludicrous.

In the past I had been thinking that the gap is between the 69th and 70th week. Lately I have been thinking it might be in the middle of the week instead. Which would mean the first half is in regards to Christ's 3.5 year ministry leading to His death in the midst of the week. Then a gap until the time of the 42 month reign of the beast, thus the 42 month reign of the beast involving the 2nd half.

Which means we still have this to square with this---And he shall confirm the covenant with many for one week. How is that possible if this week is divided into two different time periods thousands of years apart? During Christ's ministry He confirms the covenant with many, thus the first half of the 70th week. Then the 2nd half Christ confirms the covenant with many in the following way, the fact many will not worship the beast during it's 42 month reign. During the first half it involves Christ dying for many. During the 2nd half it involves many dying for Christ, the fact many who don't worship the beast, they are martyred.

It's possible, though I'm not dogmatic about it, that the 2nd half might not even be involving a literal 3.5 years, and that the 42 month reign of the beast symbolizes the 2nd half, meaning per what I'm proposing. How anyone can interpret the 70 weeks as entirely fulfilled, then sleep well at night, when that verse is involving the following--and for the overspreading of abominations he shall make it desolate, even until the consummation, and that determined shall be poured upon the desolate---is beyond me?

Why would that even be in verse 27 to begin with, is what one should be asking themselves? The way some try to explain it away, it's not involving the 70th week, it is meaning after the 70th week. If that's true that should mean some of what is recorded in verse 25, some of that is not meaning during the first 69 weeks, some of it is meaning after the 69 weeks. Isn't that how some are interpreting verse 27? Verse 25 is solely in regards to the first 69 weeks, is it not? The same should be true regarding verse 27, it is solely in regards to the 70th week. Now one is being consistent if interprerting in this manner. Meaning interpreting verse 27 in the same manner one is interpreting verse 25.

 

[grafted branch]

I definitely see your point here and how this might cause a problem for Premil in particular. Except I don't take, for example--to make an end of sins--to literally mean all sinning has to literally stop altogether in order for this to be fulfilled.

That aside.


and for the overspreading of abominations he shall make it desolate, even until the consummation, and that determined shall be poured upon the desolate.


Obviously, the fact this is mentioned in verse 27, this undeniably indicates it is something involving the 70th week, the 2nd half in this case. Explain how that part was fulfilled within 3.5 years of Christ's death. If it wasn't for this part I might agree that the entire 70 weeks have been fulfilled. My conscience won't let me agree, because to agree, the fact this part is undeniably involving the 2nd half of the 70th week, is to then apply this to Christ, which is ludicrous.

In the past I had been thinking that the gap is between the 69th and 70th week. Lately I have been thinking it might be in the middle of the week instead. Which would mean the first half is in regards to Christ's 3.5 year ministry leading to His death in the midst of the week. Then a gap until the time of the 42 month reign of the beast, thus the 42 month reign of the beast involving the 2nd half.

Which means we still have this to square with this---And he shall confirm the covenant with many for one week. How is that possible if this week is divided into two different time periods thousands of years apart? During Christ's ministry He confirms the covenant with many, thus the first half of the 70th week. Then the 2nd half Christ confirms the covenant with many in the following way, the fact many will not worship the beast during it's 42 month reign. During the first half it involves Christ dying for many. During the 2nd half it involves many dying for Christ, the fact many who don't worship the beast, they are martyred.

It's possible, though I'm not dogmatic about it, that the 2nd half might not even be involving a literal 3.5 years, and that the 42 month reign of the beast symbolizes the 2nd half, meaning per what I'm proposing. How anyone can interpret the 70 weeks as entirely fulfilled, then sleep well at night, when that verse is involving the following--and for the overspreading of abominations he shall make it desolate, even until the consummation, and that determined shall be poured upon the desolate---is beyond me?

Why would that even be in verse 27 to begin with, is what one should be asking themselves? The way some try to explain it away, it's not involving the 70th week, it is meaning after the 70th week. If that's true that should mean some of what is recorded in verse 25, some of that is not meaning during the first 69 weeks, some of it is meaning after the 69 weeks. Isn't that how some are interpreting verse 27? Verse 25 is solely in regards to the first 69 weeks, is it not? The same should be true regarding verse 27, it is solely in regards to the 70th week. Now one is being consistent if interprerting in this manner. Meaning interpreting verse 27 in the same manner one is interpreting verse 25.

Some people are going to say some things in Daniel 9:26-27 are fulfilled outside of the 490 years.

Let’s look at what the possible options are for how we are to interpret this.

1. the 490 years were fulfilled without a gap and the Daniel 9:24 goals are fulfilled and not meant in a physical manner.
2. The 490 years has a gap and the Daniel 9:24 goals have not yet been fulfilled.
3. I don’t know if anybody thinks this but I’ll put this out here just in case. The 490 years has a gap but it was fulfilled in 70AD.

I think option 1 is correct and CG has given a good explanation.

If we think option 2 is correct then either the 490 years gets fulfilled after the millennium, after Satans little season, or those goals can be fulfilled while Satan is not bound and deceiving people.

You are objecting to option 1 because of “and for the overspreading of abominations he shall make it desolate, even until the consummation, and that determined shall be poured upon the desolate.” What other possible options do we have? Do you see another option, we know it has to be true somehow.

 

[grafted branch]

I don’t know if this help clarify or not but the LXX renders Daniel 9:26-27 as such …


26 And after the sixty-two weeks, the anointed one shall be destroyed, and there is no judgment in him: and he shall destroy the city and the sanctuary with the prince that is coming: they shall be cut off with a flood, and to the end of the war which is rapidly completed he shall appoint to desolations.

27 And one week shall establish the covenant with many: and in the midst of the week my sacrifice and drink-offering shall be taken away: and on the temple the abomination of desolations; and at the end of time an end shall be put to the desolation.

 

[DavidPT]

Some people are going to say some things in Daniel 9:26-27 are fulfilled outside of the 490 years.

Let’s look at what the possible options are for how we are to interpret this.

1. the 490 years were fulfilled without a gap and the Daniel 9:24 goals are fulfilled and not meant in a physical manner.
2. The 490 years has a gap and the Daniel 9:24 goals have not yet been fulfilled.
3. I don’t know if anybody thinks this but I’ll put this out here just in case. The 490 years has a gap but it was fulfilled in 70AD.

I think option 1 is correct and CG has given a good explanation.

If we think option 2 is correct then either the 490 years gets fulfilled after the millennium, after Satans little season, or those goals can be fulfilled while Satan is not bound and deceiving people.

You are objecting to option 1 because of “and for the overspreading of abominations he shall make it desolate, even until the consummation, and that determined shall be poured upon the desolate.” What other possible options do we have? Do you see another option, we know it has to be true somehow.

Daniel 9:24 Seventy weeks are determined upon thy people and upon thy holy city, to finish the transgression, and to make an end of sins, and to make reconciliation for iniquity, and to bring in everlasting righteousness, and to seal up the vision and prophecy, and to anoint the most Holy.


The way I tend to reason some of this is like such.

A) Seventy weeks are determined upon thy people and upon thy holy city, to finish the transgression

B) and to make an end of sins

C) and to make reconciliation for iniquity

D) and to bring in everlasting righteousness

E) and to seal up the vision and prophecy

F) and to anoint the most Holy.




A) is not true until B)-F) are all true first.

B) would be true at the cross.

C) would be true at the cross.

D) would not be true until the following is true--2 Peter 3:13

E) would not be true at the cross if the cross is meaning in the middle of the week. The middle of the week does not equal 70 full weeks. It only equals 69.5 weeks at this point. Therefore, the vision wouldn't be sealed until the remainder of the 70 weeks are fulfilled first.

F) I'm not entirely certain what that is involving, though I do have some speculation as to what it might be involving. All I know is, it's the last thing on the list. And since it is the last thing on the list I don't see the logic in applying it to Christ at the beginning of His ministry. In the OT it appears to define the most holy as a place not a person. With that in mind since it is involving a place not a person, it could mean Daniel 8:14. I'm not dogmatic about that, at least not yet anyway, meaning in regards to that it might be meaning when the sanctuary is cleansed.

Getting back to A) for a moment---Seventy weeks are determined--and upon thy holy city, to finish the transgression. This is not true until the following is true first---Zechariah 14:11. As to Zechariah 14:11, obviously that was not already true when Christ went to the cross, the fact Jerusalem was attacked and destroyed some 40 years later, which would then contradict this---there shall be no more utter destruction; but Jerusalem shall be safely inhabited. And the fact Jerusalem is still not safely inhabited in our day and time either, Zechariah 14:11 still isn't fulfilled.

Which means that there is room for this gap some of us are proposing, the fact the entire 70 weeks is not entirely fulfilled in the first century to begin with.

 

[grafted branch]

D) would not be true until the following is true--2 Peter 3:13

That means the 490 years aren’t fulfilled until after Satans little season. Everyone I know that has a gap in the 490 years has them being fulfilled just prior to the second coming of Christ, before the millennium not after.

I’m not arguing against a gap, just that if it is fulfilled prior to the millennium then it doesn’t seem to make sense unless it is being interpreted similarly to how CG is interpreting it.

 

[DavidPT]

That means the 490 years aren’t fulfilled until after Satans little season. Everyone I know that has a gap in the 490 years has them being fulfilled just prior to the second coming of Christ, before the millennium not after.

I’m not arguing against a gap, just that if it is fulfilled prior to the millennium then it doesn’t seem to make sense unless it is being interpreted similarly to how CG is interpreting it.

Initially I saw your point in regards to this maybe being problematic for Premil. But the more I think about it, what does satan's little season have to do with anything one way or the other? Assuming there are no gaps, does that view require that the 70 weeks can't be fulfilled until satan's little season is fulfilled first? No, right? Why would that have to be the case if there is a gap? Explain why satan's little season would not be relevant if there are no gaps in the 70 weeks, but would be relevant if there is a gap in the 70 weeks? Either way, satan's little season is meaning after the 70 weeks are fulfilled, is it not?