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The Saros Cycle doesn't tell you exactly where and when the eclipse will be visible. Heliocentric maths does, with reliable consistent accuracy.Eclipses are predicted according to the Saros Cycle, not heliocentric maths.
I made that earlier post right before I went to bed last night so I messed up the quote.Thank you for confirming my earlier post. The Bible only refers to a vague "all scripture". There is no way to really know what the writer considered "scripture". At that time it would almost certainly exclude the New Testament. That verse can only refer to older "scripture" and one does not even know if or what books of the Old Testament would be counted as "scripture". The Jewish Torah is not identical to the Old Testament.
EDIT: I responded to @Oncewaslostbutamfound , unfortunately his response to me was buried in his quote of me and of course it was lost when I quoted him. Post #75 was his response if you are curious.
Not true. You are only considering when the eclipse would occur. The path of the Moon's shadow on the Earth is determined by the heliocentric model:
Saros (astronomy) - Wikipedia
And of course your model still cannot explain sunrises or sunsets, or how the Sun can sometimes light up clouds from underneath. Or the motion of the stars at night in the two hemispheres. The list of what Flerfers cannot explain that the globe model does explain is almost endless.
No, that verse does not say that. You clearly put your own spin on it. The verse that you posted was the one I was implying in my first post that you responded to. And of course that verse was not even written by an apostle. It does not matter if Jesus used the Septuagint or not. And that claim is doubtful. What you forgot was that the anonymous authors of the Gospels were all Greek speakers. They may have relied on the Septuagint for their quotes, not Jesus.I made that earlier post right before I went to bed last night so I messed up the quote.
Jesus and his Apostles used the Septuagint. Jesus quoted the Greek language version most of time, so we do know what sort of Bible he was using. What you said in your earlier post was that the Bible doesn't say it is the word of God it is only the interpretation of some Christians. I found a verse that clearly says it is. Why wouldn't Paul regard the first century writings that would become the New Testament as scripture? What is your evidence?
Saros cycle is what Nasa relies on for eclipse predictions.
FE can explain those items, you just don't like the answers.
Now run along and find physical evidence of that missing curvature. Cause you know we can see way further than we should on ball earth predictions.
But still you insist on no unicorns. How unbiblical can you get?Sorry, I've been through this numerous times on this forum. You will always get a subset of the same 15 people who aren't capable of understanding what they see concerning flat earth but will have endless cartloads of crap to say about it. They know everything there is to know about it already. Just ask them. This 'christian' forum isn't friendly to biblical cosmology. Probably never will be.
But still you insist on no unicorns. How unbiblical can you get?
It's right there in the King James. But you want me to take metaphorical language seriously, when it comes to your flat Earth silliness.
Was the Bible written as a science book?
I'm going to guess that you're hanging your hat on Isaiah 40:22.
So let's look at some of the other things Isaiah 40 says: "every valley shall be raised up,
every mountain and hill made low;
the rough ground shall become level,
the rugged places a plain."
Is that literal or metaphorical?
"
The grass withers and the flowers fall,
because the breath of the Lord blows on them.
Surely the people are grass."
Is God literally blowing on the grass? Are people literally grass?
It says the Lord rules with a mighty hand,
Does God literally have physical hands?
Isaiah 40 also says he gathered lambs in his arms, and measures the water of the Earth in his hand.
Oh this is a good one: he held the dust of the Earth in a basket!
Literally or figuratively?
Weighed the mountains on a scale!
Really?
Sounds to me like these are figurative terms used to show us the power of the Almighty, not to be taken literally.
As a matter of fact that text itself tells us that:
"
With whom, then, will you compare God? To what image will you liken him?"
It's beautiful imagery, not a scientific explanation of the form of the Earth.
So, no answer, then. It's all literal?I believe in the conveyance of the original languages. Just because some translations of that used a word 400 years ago that in today's thought is a mythical creature, doesn't follow I have to believe in that mythical creature to be biblical.
The rest of this is just you trying to explain away other portions of scripture so it conforms to your own understanding. Shameful, but I'm not the one who will have to answer for it.
So, no answer, then. It's all literal?
I'm not explaining away scripture. I'm reading it in context.
The text doesn't even say that the Earth is flat, BTW, it doesn't even use that imagery.
Why a flat disk? If you want to take the earth verses in scriptural imagery literally, you have to have corners on the Earth, and have it sitting on pillars.
Then you are claiming that scripture is false since we can show those simplistic explanations are wrong.No answer? That was an answer. Did you not read it yet? Do I need to give you more time?
Depends on if you actually study a bit or just assume it so. There are people who have taken the time to amass over 200 such scriptures displaying such imagery, but maybe you missed them.
Yes, you do, and under a dome, wherein the sun, moon, and stars are placed, just as scriptures describe.
Does a frisbee have corners?