I'm communicating just fine. You can't get through to people who reject any type of evidence and always believe their views are right, now matter how much controversy is involved with those beliefs. 1 Corinthians 6:9 is a perfect example. People here claim it condemns all homosexuals. But what is that based on? We know the use of "homosexuals" is an error, because the Greek word does not refer to homosexual women. So then, we look at homosexual men. But where does the belief come from that the Greek word refers to all homosexual men? Paul invented the word. He chose not to use the other Greek words that already referred to homosexuality and his audience was well aware of. Why is that? And why has the word changed meaning numerous times through the last 2000 years? During the Reformation, Protestants universally translated that word as masturbators. At one point in history, it meant kidnappers. And in classical literature following Paul's invention of the word, we find it always used to refer to economic sins/vices. Never is it found among sexual sins.
So why should I accept the modern day viewpoint, when none of the evidence supports that and people have viewed it differently for 2000 years? What makes conservatives today right, but Martin Luther, Protestants, and those in the first few centuries of Christianity wrong?