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There were no Pharisees either - and thus, that's the point. Just because there were certain laws given at Sinai doesn't mean that any or all groups within Judaism would not have chosen to add things in orally when the priesthood was seriously challenged and later changed during the Hasmonean Dynasty - and the priesthood wasn't the same with the Urim and Thirim. Your question and conclusion presupposes that the Urim and Thurim were still PRESENT during the time of the Pharisees and other groups - but much of that was lost alongside a trust in a valid priesthood - thus making any desire to see what the priests said (even if they had it/claimed to use it) of no effect.I am not getting your point here. There were no Sadducees at Sinai. Nor Pharisees. Yet, the Pharisees say oral law was given then.
corruption of the priesthood etc. Why would it need to be given if the priests had the Urim and thummim? That was the question.
Before the .
As said earlier, one good resource on the issue to consider is Urim and Thummim. And with the Urim and Thummim issue, the issue of casting lots is HIGHLY signficant since it was perfectly acceptable to cast lots on important decisions, no different than praying and asking the Lord to reveal something in a dream or a vision or a sign for confirmation (more#5#19 and #25/#45 as it concerns the Biblical history of casting lots). The apostles did pray/ask the Lord to reveal whom to chose...and it fell to Mattias. and with the priesthood shifting to a Christ centered perspective, some things did not really seem as necessary.
Again, when seeing how the Pharisees sprang up out of the Hasidism movement that followed the Maccabees account - due to not seeing a valid priesthood and finding corruption - it's not surprising to see the Pharisees do as they did for a sense of connection to the past. And this goes in addtion to the way that centuries of Diaspora had led to less of a focus on the Priesthood/Temple and more of a focus on the scribe/teacher - thus increasing the power of Oral Law/Tradition.Why would it need to be given if the priests had the Urim and thummim? That was the question.
Definately things to consider...But this probably taking this thread off track. You say I have not mentioned other groups. This is true because I am not privy to other groups having spoken to this issue. That's why the questions.
I will take a look at your links later. I think the Pharisees and Sadducees SHARED alot of similar understanding of the law. I think it is possible some their tradition (oral law) came from those ancient decisions. But I do not know because it is never spoken of, other than the Pharisees themselves. They diverged however in this book of manner of punishment of the guilty.
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