Gary51
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- Sep 4, 2007
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Jesus did not claim to be God. It is important to study and know the conventions of the time in which the scriptures were written and the events happened.
Thomas's story ought to be read in conjunction with Ps 82. It was convention to use god as a term of respect for those in authority. This was a term used for the judges as well.
Grabbing a concordance and interlinear bible, it is apparent that the god used in the passage with Thomas is not the same as God used in most other occasions.
So, why did Thomas make the statement that he did? 'My Lord and my god.' The first part is straightforward. This is acknowlegement to him being the Son of God, the Messiah. (Also refer to Ps with David writing 'The LORD said to my Lord.').
Next part then. Why then say, 'and my god.'? As mentioned earlier, the term 'god', was once used as a title. The meaning of words can change over time, for a more recent difference think of the the word 'gay'. 30 years ago if someone used gay you would think of the use as a descriptor for happy and cheerful. Today, the use of that word has the immediate thought of homosexuality. That is a change in 30 short years.
So, when Thomas refers to Jesus as 'his god' it is a title of reverence. What is this in relation to? Christ being the King of the Jews.
Did Jesus claim divinity? Not at all. He acted with the authority of God, as His agent on Earth. Through this authority, he was able to heal the sick, forgive sin and command nature. Jesus was a man, with God as his father. To paint Jesus as divine cheapens what was achieved during his life and flies in the face of biblical teaching.
I'm waiting for someone to answer my point, but so far no one has... Maybe they can't. Because it would be a simple matter for me to prove that the Apostles did not believe Jesus was God... no matter how they interpret what Thomas said.
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