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GDL

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It's not either/or, but both/and. God draws, we respond- or not.
"If you remain in Me and I in you, you will bear much fruit; apart from Me you can do nothing." John 15:5

Gotcha. Meaning "understood."
 
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2PhiloVoid

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...............................that's a lot of words by which to tell me you've misunderstood just about anything I may have intended to say, brother NotreDame.

I'd recommend that you perhaps step back and observe before jumping in with both rhetorical guns blazing, especially if it turns out that you're downing your own team in doing so.

Of course, I agree that Paul is warning the Romans against allowing legalism into their understanding and practice of faith in Christ. I never said he was insisting on their "following the Law." So, I'd appreciate it if you, and anyone else here, would just set down your suspicions and give me a break.

In return, I'll do the same for you.

Furthermore, NO---a plain reading isn't ALWAYS due. In fact, sometimes, a plain reading ends up being a reading that tears a verse away from its overall contexts, thus skewing the meaning it was meant to have.
 
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1213

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Lots of discussion lately about "works".
When compared with discussions about "grace" and "faith", we are pretty quick to define the terms.
But, what about "works"? ...

I think works means actions. If person is righteous, he does righteous works.

He who does righteousness is righteous, even as he is righteous. He who sins is of the devil, for the devil has been sinning from the beginning. To this end the Son of God was revealed, that he might destroy the works of the devil. Whoever is born of God doesn't commit sin, because his seed remains in him; and he can't sin, because he is born of God. In this the children of God are revealed, and the children of the devil. Whoever doesn't do righteousness is not of God, neither is he who doesn't love his brother.
1 John 3:7-10
 
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Butterball1

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Earlier in the context ,Jesus fed the multitude and later they came to Jesus looking for more food to eat yet Jesus says to them:
27 "Labour not for the meat which perisheth, but for that meat which endureth unto everlasting life, which the Son of man shall give unto you: for him hath God the Father sealed."

Jesus tells them to work (labour) for the food that endures unto everlasting life. Jesus refutes the idea of 'faith only' or that no works at all are needed to be saved.

The verse goes on to say that Jesus GIVES everlasting life meaning that it is a free gift freely given. But everlasting life is NOT an UNconditional free gift. Jesus put preconditions upon this gift and in this context the work of believing is a necessary precondition that must first be met to receive the free gift.

28 "Then said they unto him, What shall we do, that we might work the works of God?"

After telling them to work in v27 they ask about that work saying "what shall we do..that we work"
They asked Jesus what work they were to do and Jesus did NOT tell them do no works.

29 "Jesus answered and said unto them, This is the work of God, that ye believe on him whom he hath sent."
In response to their question in v28 What shall WE DO, that WE WORK...Jesus gave them the work of believing.

Luke 6:46 "And why call ye me, Lord, Lord, and do not the things which I say?" Jesus is not the Lord of those that do not do the things which He says.

Acts of the Apostles 16:31 men have been commanded to believe. The command implies man has ability and responsibility to believe.
Therefore God does not do the work of believing for man for that work has been commanded to man to do. No sense in commanding man to believe if it were not possible for man to believe or if God does the work of belieivng for man. If God does the work of belieivng for man, then all those in unbelief are so due to God's fault, failure to do this work for them.

1 Corinthians 16:10 "Now if Timotheus come, see that he may be with you without fear: for he worketh the work of the Lord, as I also do." Timothy was doing the work the Lord gave himto do, not the Lord doing the work for Timothy.

Mark 2:5 "When Jesus saw their faith, he said unto the sick of the palsy, Son, thy sins be forgiven thee." What Jesus saw that is called faith is the work those men did in trying to get the sick man to Christ,
 
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GDL

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Jesus tells them to work (labour) for the food that endures unto everlasting life. Jesus refutes the idea of 'faith only' or that no works at all are needed to be saved.

Thanks for the response.

I'm with you on belief in Christ being commanded. I think logic alone thus tells us our commanded belief is also obedience. I see this case also being made in other ways using other Scriptures that parallel faith & obedience.

Besides faith, I also consider salvation to not be comprehensively understood by many and how works do fit in with salvation once we first believe/obey.

I think I understand you, but, to be clear, how do you, or do you reconcile Paul's teachings about saved by faith w/o works?
 
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GDL

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29 "Jesus answered and said unto them, This is the work of God, that ye believe on him whom he hath sent."
In response to their question in v28 What shall WE DO, that WE WORK...Jesus gave them the work of believing.

This is one way to read it depending how we are understand "the work of God." Is their belief their work, or God's?

Jesus has not been answering questions directly. There are many ways to translate "the work of God."
 
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LoveGodsWord

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Thank you for adding a proper perspective here in this thread GDL. Unlike our English words, the biblical definitions for believe (better, believing present tense), and faith (better, faithfulness) are not only a mental assent to something that may be true or not true but a belief that leads to continual ongoing action or obedience to what God's Word says. A faith that is simply a mental assent to the truth without action or obedience to Gods Word according to James is not saving faith but the dead faith of devils who believe but do not follow what God's Word says *James 2:19. Yet many believe today, that all we have to do is believe. While this is partly true, if our faith does not lead to obedience to God's Word which is the reason God gives us His Grace *Romans 1:5 then we do not have the saving faith of the bible. James says Faith without action (works) is dead (not saving living faith) in James 2:20 and in fact saving faith without obedience to God's Word is not faith at all according to the bible *James 2:14-26; Hebrews 11:7-40. Without faith that leads to obedience to God's Word it is impossible to please God *Hebrews 11:6 because whatsoever is not of faith is sin (Romans 14:23) because our inaction leads to disobedience to God's Word. Therefore the biblical definition of faith or what it means to believe, always leads to action, therefore believing (present tense) and following what God's Word says. So very simply the works that God wants us to do according to scripture is to believe and follow His Word *John 10:26-27; Matthew 7:21-23 yet this is something that also comes from God *Ephesians 2:10; Philippians 2:13; 1 John 3:6-9 as His Word is a living Word that quickens and is alive in those who believe it and is why Jesus says unless we are born again to love and to walk in His Spirit we cannot enter into the Kingdom of heaven *John 3:3-7; Galatians 5:16 because those who are born again do not practice sin (1 John 3:6-9).

God bless.​
 
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NotreDame

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Just looking at the Greek word for work, "ergois/ergon" has been used to mean, "work, task, employment; a deed, action; that which is wrought or made, a work." The NASB has noted the word "work" has been used to convey, "action (1), behavior (1), deed (13), deeds (52), doing (1), effectual (1), labor (1), result (1), task (1), what...done (1), work (34), works (62)." For a more comprehensive listing, see https://biblehub.com/greek/2041.htm

I am not aware of any idioms associated with the word "works" at the time. The link above provides various ways the word is used in different verses, thereby expressing the different meanings, facilitating a better understanding of how the word is used elsewhere in the Bible.

Ephesians 2:10 We are the result of God's labor, we are the art from his labor. Created to do good deeds, or good actions, good behaviors.

1. Corinthians 3:12-14 (I expand the scope here)
"Now the one who plants and the one who waters are one; but each will receive his own reward according to his own labor. 9 For we are God’s fellow workers; you are God’s field, God’s building.
10 According to the grace of God which was given to me, like a wise master builder I laid a foundation, and another is building on it. But each person must be careful how he builds on it. 11 For no one can lay a foundation other than the one which is laid, which is Jesus Christ. 12 Now if anyone builds on the foundation with gold, silver, precious stones, wood, hay, or straw, 13 each one’s work will become evident; for the day will show it because it is to be revealed with fire, and the fire itself will test the quality of each one’s work. 14 If anyone’s work which he has built on it remains, he will receive a reward. 15 If anyone’s work is burned up, he will suffer loss; but he himself will be saved, yet only so as through fire."

So here, Paul "laid a foundation and another is building upon it." This can be a reference to the churches he assisted in starting and/or his teachings to those churches in his letters. The "another" is a reference to those churches, specifically perhaps the leadership and I suppose the people, collectively and individually. What their work has built upon the foundation will be revealed by "fire." The word "fire" here may quite possibly be an idiom (similar to my hands are ice). The "work" is a reference to labor, their actions, taken as they built upon the foundation.
 
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NotreDame

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Did I misunderstand? No, I did not misunderstand what you said those specific verses are to be read and understood "from the river of meaning that Paul is rolling forth throughout his entire letter to the Romans." I did not jump to any conclusions about what you said. Your words, your own words, is what I went by.

There is no need, as you suggest, to read those specific verses "from the river of meaning that Paul is rolling forth throughout his entire letter to the Romans." Paul's point is discernible from the plain text of the verses and it is not rational to go looking for additional meaning when the plain text provides a meaning. It is not logical to examine those specific verses in Romans "from the river of meaning that Paul is rolling forth throughout his entire letter to the Romans" because the plain text already provides a meaning without it.

Furthermore, NO---a plain reading isn't ALWAYS due.

Yes, I know this, which is why I did not say a plain text meaning is "always due." What you have said above is necessarily implied by what I did say about plain text.

In fact, sometimes, a plain reading ends up being a reading that tears a verse away from its overall contexts, thus skewing the meaning it was meant to have

No. Disagree. Logically, context is used to make sense of a text in which the plain text does not provide a meaning. "Park it in the bay." Context is needed here to discern the meaning of what is discussed. "Do not leave the car parked in the driveway of my home, but park the car in the bay." The plain text here gives us a meaning not requiring any context.

thus skewing the meaning it was meant to have

None of the writers are around today. So, the chances of determining what was "meant" to be said is probably impossible, an exercise in futility. Attempting to ascertain what was "meant to be said" by the framers of the U.S. Constitution has proven to be at times an impossible task, despite only being 234 years removed from its drafting, and having extraneous writings about the Constitution.

And, what was "mean to be said" is rather irrelevant. What in fact was written is what is controlling, after all, that is the very point of writing things down in words.
 
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2PhiloVoid

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Alright. I see you have your own point of view which you're apparently adamant about. And which hermeneutical teachers do you suggest I (we) rely upon, brother NotreDame?

I have to ask because when I look at a verse like Romans 4:2, I see it saying one thing but actually meaning:

For if Abraham was justified by works (implied = Works of the Law), he has something to boast about; but not before God ...​

Am I wrong? If so, how?
 
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mlepfitjw

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Hello Saint Steven brother, and all who have posted: Faith without works is dead.

If Love the Lord Your God, with all your heart, all your mind, all your soul, and all your strength and love your neighbour as yourself is part of the law of Moses, do we still follow what Jesus Christ tells when he says Love God, and Love others?


Is faith towards God implying having a relationship and that love for God overflow through the Lord Jesus Christ and the spirit inside us outwardly to others?

Faith with out this type of work 'believing on the one whom God sent' disqualify love altogether therefore the faith is rendered dead?
 
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fhansen

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Yes, faith without that kind of love would make us pretty much...nothing (1 Cor 13:2). And God didn't do all He did so we would remain nothing. He's producing something from this plan and work of His called salvation.
 
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NotreDame

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Well, first, the Greek word for “works” used by Paul. The Greek word is ergon/egois, and the meaning doesn’t encapsulate your “works of the law.” There’s no rational reason to abandon the Greek meaning for the Greek word Paul used in Romans 4:2.

So, is Paul relying upon an idiom? This is problematic because there’s no evidence to support the idiom related to the word “works.”

Paul is perfectly capable of explicitly mentioning “the Law.” Paul had no difficulty using the phrase the “Law” elsewhere in the NT. When Paul wants to reference to the “Law” he does so, as he did elsewhere in the NT, including elsewhere in Romans.

So, your assumption “works”=“works of the law” isn’t tenable. Paul, being a gifted writer, educated, and explicitly referencing the “Law” elsewhere in the NT, and Romans, didn’t suddenly go mute, or forgot about the phrase or how to use the phrase for this specific Romans verse.

And let’s, for the moment, rely upon basic logic when reading a text. If a meaning can be discerned from the plain text, there’s no need to go any further in quest for the meaning. For example, “nor shall any state deprive any person of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law.” Is there a plain text meaning? Yes. What is it? A state can deprive a person of their life, liberty, and property, when due process is adhered to in doing so. There’s no need to go all Sherlock Holmes and investigate for another meaning.

Now, to draw a parallel to the Romans verse using a federal statute. Title 7 reads in part, “
It shall be an unlawful employment practice for an employer -

(1) to fail or refuse to hire or to discharge any individual, or otherwise to discriminate against any individual with respect to his compensation, terms, conditions, or privileges of employment, because of such individual's race, color, religion, sex, or national origin.”

So, a plain text meaning is employers may not refuse to hire or promote any individual or engage in discriminatory conduct towards any person in a specific way stated, “because of” the person(s)’ race, religion, sex, color, or national origin.

But what does “because of” mean? Is there a meaning like the Greek word for “work”? Yes. The Court in Price Waterhouse v Hopkins said the phrase “because of” is to mean race, sex, color, religion, national origin, was a “factor” and not “the factor” and not the “sole cause” for discrimination/discriminatory treatment. Congress later codified this meaning in the statute.

So, the phrase “because of” has a meaning, like the word “works” in the verse, and it doesn’t have as its meaning “the factor” or “sole cause” just as the Greek meaning of the word work, ergon/ergois, doesn’t include “works of the Law.”

And just as there’s no rational reason to add to the meaning of “because of” a meaning that isn’t associated with the phrase or abandon the given meaning to add another meaning, there’s likewise no add to the Greek meaning of ergon/ergois, and abandon the given meanings.

It isn’t logical then to go looking for other meanings not supported by the plain text meaning or to go hunting for another meaning other than the meaning given for a specific word.
 
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2PhiloVoid

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Alright, so I see that you're employing a hermeneutic for your exegesis. And from what source have you drawn your methodology? Do you have a scholar you can offer me whom you feel backs you in your interpretation here?
 
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Saint Steven

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Careful not to back so far out in your search for context that you fall off a cliff. - lol
 
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2PhiloVoid

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Careful not to back so far out in your search for context that you fall off a cliff. - lol

Lol! Steve, this isn't the first time I've heard this kind of comment today. The only thing is that I've heard it from those on the other side of the fence from yourself (i.e. from the MacArthur supporters).

I can't win for losing.
 
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Yeshua HaDerekh

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And yet, love God and your neighbor are in the Law...Deuteronomy and Leviticus...
 
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