The Matthew 24 prophecy was specific to a certain event. You keep comparing that Luke passage which talks about the resurrection as if it is connected. It isn't. Jesus was explaining the error of the Pharisees and told them that after the resurrection - something that is even in the future for us - would preclude marriage. Their attempt to trick him didn't work. To extrapolate it as some general rule that applies everywhere is faulty exegesis.
Neither passage is talking about some future age in general. In the Olivette discourse Jesus is explaining to his disciples exactly and specifically what will happen to bring about the final end of the old covenant age, not about the end of the world. He answered the question they asked, not by discussing a future event which they already understood (The Last Day).
The fact that he's talking about the end of that age, does not lead us to conclude anything other than that the age ended. There was an overlap between the beginning of the new age and the final end of the old age of about 40 years. Because one thing begins, that doesn't mean that at that precise moment in time the old thing wasn't still honored. But if you can't accept this, you at least have to acknowledge that the old covenant did end. So the last days of the old covenant ended and a new age began whenever you want to put the exact time of its ending.
There was a grace period while the gospel was preached and the Jews who hadn't heard or accepted the gospel were allowed to continue with the old law. Then, the temple was destroyed and there was only one covenant possible for men to enter into. It became impossible after that for anyone to obey the old law. God took away their kingdom which they had rejected anyway way back in Samuel when they asked for an earthly king.
There still is an "age" to come after the Last Day. That age begins on the day of judgement. It's an age that hasn't yet arrived. You want there only to be two ages for whatever reason. Why?