34 Jesus replied, “The people of this age marry and are given in marriage. 35 But those who are considered worthy of taking part in the age to come and in the resurrection from the dead will neither marry nor be given in marriage"
What I would want you the reader to notice here is that Jesus is obviously talking about the Last Day - the day that people are resurrected and it is responsive to their question.
And what was the question?
3 Now then, at the resurrection whose wife will she be, since the seven were married to her?”
Unless one thinks that Jesus doesn't answer direct questions, then he has to be talking in the context here of what they asked. It was a trick question - so they thought.
But he knew more than they did. Now why on earth would you think I would conflate this to mean something about AD 70? What possible reference to AD 70 is in this passage?
Now Luke 21 on the other hand....
But I will say this. The fact that he uses that term 'age to come' doesn't mean that this phrase means the same thing every time it's encountered. It cannot be applied universally. When you see a word or phrase in the bible it doesn't mean the same thing every time it appears. You cannot build a doctrine around a phrase and then assert it means the same thing every time. That's terrible exegesis.
Let me give you an example
Acts 2
42 They devoted themselves to the apostles’ teaching and to fellowship, to the breaking of bread and to prayer. 43 Everyone was filled with awe at the many wonders and signs performed by the apostles. 44 All the believers were together and had everything in common. 45 They sold property and possessions to give to anyone who had need. 46 Every day they continued to meet together in the temple courts. They broke bread in their homes and ate together with glad and sincere hearts, 47 praising God and enjoying the favor of all the people. And the Lord added to their number daily those who were being saved.
In the same passage this same term means different things. In the first, it's talking about the Lord's supper and in the second instance it's talking about regular meals.
You will get yourself into all kinds of error by taking one phrase and then asserting that it means the same thing every time its encountered. Don't do that. It's not appropriate. Grammarians call this 'illegitimate totality transfer.' It's the practice of people who have a real problem making distinctions. Context defines meaning, not the individual words. We get dictionary definitions of words from their use in writings, we do not first define a word and then apply that meaning everywhere it is used. And there is more than one definition for every word in our language because they're used differently depending on context.