Creation predictions

DogmaHunter

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Jesus validated Daniel as a prophet and authentic. Frankly no one cares about any irrelevant dissenting baseless opinions about him either. You would need to present your case.

Daniels' fulfilled prophesies of Babylon, Medo Persia, Greece and Rome are predictions that come from a creation believer. All prophesy in the bible also does for that matter.

When I asked for testable predictions in the OP, I was talking about actual objective testable predictions, not untestable "prophecy" and most certainly not self-fulfilling prophecy.

But I am under no illusion that you plan on
- being honest about that
- even try to understand the difference.
 
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dad

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When I asked for testable predictions in the OP, I was talking about actual objective testable predictions, not untestable "prophecy" and most certainly not self-fulfilling prophecy.

But I am under no illusion that you plan on
- being honest about that
- even try to understand the difference.
Rome fell as predicted. I can test that. Greece too. Israel did got into captivity as predicted, we can test that. The temple Jesus said would be destroyed was. We can test that, just try to go there today and you will see a mosque. Bethlehem is a real place. Jesus did come in the prophesied years Daniel said Messiah would come, and die.

Etc.

So when I read that wolves and lions will eat grass I can rest assured they will.

A prophesy is a prediction. The failed predictions/prophesies of science show us that they must not be trusted.

Name any biological prediction of science that involves the far past? Predicting that bacteria in a lab and dish will react a certain way now is not a prediction, but more just learning how things now work.

The models of so called science of the far future or past could be called predictions. They are all false. It is a sacred duty to disbelieve and reject them.
 
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DogmaHunter

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Rome fell as predicted. I can test that. Greece too. Israel did got into captivity as predicted, we can test that. The temple Jesus said would be destroyed was. We can test that, just try to go there today and you will see a mosque. Bethlehem is a real place. Jesus did come in the prophesied years Daniel said Messiah would come, and die.

Etc.

So when I read that wolves and lions will eat grass I can rest assured they will.

A prophesy is a prediction. The failed predictions/prophesies of science show us that they must not be trusted.

Name any biological prediction of science that involves the far past? Predicting that bacteria in a lab and dish will react a certain way now is not a prediction, but more just learning how things now work.

The models of so called science of the far future or past could be called predictions. They are all false. It is a sacred duty to disbelieve and reject them.

Still not understanding the difference between "prophecy" and "objective testable prediction", I see.
 
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PsychoSarah

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-_- your source says that Jews were exiled/convinced to leave multiple times, not just once. The prophecy was of a singular event.


It was not a prophesy that dealt with percentages who would be taken away.
It didn't need to give an exact percentage, it needed only to clarify "all" or "most". And it doesn't, meaning it is vague. And again, no guarantees that the text wasn't altered to fit history after the fact, since it was an ancient event. Do you even have a single prophecy from a modern event that meets my criteria?


You are misinformed, He did not say people would do what you say in that time at all.
He says "standing here" while talking to people. The most likely interpretation is that he meant the generation of the people there.


We do not see the great tribulation, the stars having fallen from the sly..etc etc. WHEN you see those thing, that generation then that sees it will not pass until all be fulfilled. (because the events are rapid paced and will not take many years to unfold and complete)
You were. Hopefully you are now properly informed.
Negatory, he was obviously addressing the people he was talking to. Future tense existed in the language the NT was written in; if Jesus wanted to say "the future witnesses of these tribulations will live to see my return" he would have in future tense.
 
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dad

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Still not understanding the difference between "prophecy" and "objective testable prediction", I see.

The fulfilled predictions of the bible are the best tested predictions on earth. The often failing predictions of science cannot be objective because they cannot be objective.


ob·jec·tive
(əb-jĕk′tĭv)
adj.
1.
a.
Existing independent of or external to the mind; actual or real: objective reality.
b. Based on observable phenomena; empirical: objective facts.
2. Uninfluenced by emotions or personal prejudices: an objective critic. See Synonyms at fair1.


No predictions of the future or far past by science can be called objective. All they observe is here and now. They assume the here and now is the same as the then and there. That is faith...not observed or objective in any sense of the word.
 
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dad

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-_- your source says that Jews were exiled/convinced to leave multiple times, not just once. The prophecy was of a singular event.
Yes, the captivity in Babylon, though in stages was a singular event.


It didn't need to give an exact percentage, it needed only to clarify "all" or "most". And it doesn't, meaning it is vague.
No. Israel was destroyed as a nation and many were taken captive. The is precise, a certain nation will take them captive..for a certain time. Now if it said, a nation across the sea at some point will be destroyed and many taken into slavery..that would be vague. To tell a specific nation at a certain time, for specific reason will be destroyed and into captivity for 70 years to a specific nation, under a specific king is anything but vague.

And again, no guarantees that the text wasn't altered to fit history after the fact, since it was an ancient event. Do you even have a single prophecy from a modern event that meets my criteria?
Jesus guaranteed it. Signed, sealed and delivered.


He says "standing here" while talking to people. The most likely interpretation is that he meant the generation of the people there.
No, that is impossible. Where He said standing here, it was back in Matthew 16:28 and it was talking of the second death which is in the hereafter.

The verse in Matt 24 talked of the generation that saw certain things start to happen...that could not be the generation living then, as those things still have not happened! Elementary.

Negatory, he was obviously addressing the people he was talking to.


Jesus said He had other sheep also, not of that fold. His words were NOT just for the hundreds of folks in His day on earth. They were also for the billions to come later.
Future tense existed in the language the NT was written in; if Jesus wanted to say "the future witnesses of these tribulations will live to see my return" he would have in future tense.
The stars falling from the sky places it in the future tense to anyone that knows Scripture and prophesy. One should approach the mystical, magical, awe inspiring, eternal, deep, God given word of God in Scripture from a perspective of humbly asking and seeking. Not from a perspective of trying to make the Almighty look silly.
 
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DogmaHunter

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The fulfilled predictions of the bible are the best tested predictions on earth.

No, they are not.
It's circularity all the way down and not verifiable in any way.

The bible is not a verification of the bible.

No predictions of the future or far past by science can be called objective. All they observe is here and now. They assume the here and now is the same as the then and there. That is faith...not observed or objective in any sense of the word.
"faith" is what you need to assume that the laws of physics were different in the past.
It's just another variation of last thursdayism.

When you can actually demonstrate that the laws of physics were different in the past, we can talk about it. Until then, there is no reason to assume such.
 
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dad

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No, they are not.
It's circularity all the way down and not verifiable in any way.

The bible is not a verification of the bible.
The bible is a collection of material spanning millennia. The carefully preserved records must cover the time when many prophesies were fulfilled. Nothing circular about a continuous linear record through time. God worked with His words to man. He did not work with pagan kings so much. Jesus came according to the words, precisely as foretold. It was not circular for Jesus to fulfill hundreds of ancient scriptures.


"faith" is what you need to assume that the laws of physics were different in the past.
It's just another variation of last thursdayism.
"faith" is what you need to assume that the laws of physics were the same in the past.
It's just another variation of last thursdayism.

When you can actually demonstrate that the laws of physics were the same in the past, we can talk about it. Until then, there is no reason to assume such. In fact ancient history and God's word reveal your belief was wrong.
 
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DogmaHunter

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The bible is a collection of material spanning millennia.

And an extremely biased one at that. Not contemporary. Not independend.
And not corroborated outside of it in any way. At least not for the actual relevant parts.


Nothing circular about a continuous linear record through time

Using the bible to prove the bible, is practically the very definition of circularity.


God worked with His words to man. He did not work with pagan kings so much

Maybe he should have. It would have made it a bit more believable. Just a bit though.

Jesus came according to the words, precisely as foretold

Or.... it was written down in such a way to specifically match that which was foretold.
The authors of the NT were very aware of the OT, after all.
And the "prophecies" most certainly are vague enough to be able to force-fit it.


It was not circular for Jesus to fulfill hundreds of ancient scriptures.

What Jesus supposedly did and didn't do, is just claimed in the book. And it happens to be the same book which also includes the so-called prophecies.

Color me unimpressed.

"faith" is what you need to assume that the laws of physics were the same in the past.
It's just another variation of last thursdayism.

Nope. There is no reason to believe they were ever different.
There is much reason to believe that they've always been the same.

When you can actually demonstrate that the laws of physics were the same in the past, we can talk about it

We can, actually.
I submit the entire 4.5 billion year old geological record as supportive evidence. It makes perfect sense in a solar system that has always been ruled by the same physics.
It makes no sense at all when we assume that physics was different in the past.

As a matter of fact, I'ld even say that the ONLY reason you even propose that these physics were different, is because you have fundamentalist religious beliefs that are incompatible with modern scientific understandings of reality.

And you KNOW that they are incompatible. And since there is a speck of rationality remaining in your brain, you realise that it would be completely delusional of you to simply assume that "reality is wrong". So in order to solve this internal conflict of yours, you invented this "new past" out of thin air, just so you could hold on to your beliefs, which you actually know make no sense in light of scientific findings.

It's just some psychological defense mechanism that you are using, to protect your faith based beliefs.

In fact ancient history and God's word reveal your belief was wrong.

As I have just explained, your religious beliefs are out of touch with reality. So you are "re inventing" reality, in a desperate attempt to make it fit.
 
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Speedwell

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One of my favorite prophecy fulfillments is in Matt 21:1-7 where Jesus basically says to his disciples, "Wait! It says in the OT that if I'm the Messiah I'm supposed to ride into town on a donkey. Quick, go get me a donkey."
 
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PsychoSarah

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Yes, the captivity in Babylon, though in stages was a singular event.



No. Israel was destroyed as a nation and many were taken captive. The is precise, a certain nation will take them captive..for a certain time. Now if it said, a nation across the sea at some point will be destroyed and many taken into slavery..that would be vague. To tell a specific nation at a certain time, for specific reason will be destroyed and into captivity for 70 years to a specific nation, under a specific king is anything but vague.
Look dude, the event happened too far in the past to verify that the biblical prophecy remained unedited and was present BEFORE the event. This is why one of the qualifications for the prophecy being legitimate is that it must be fulfilled OUTSIDE of the pages of the bible.
 
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dad

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Look dude, the event happened too far in the past to verify that the biblical prophecy remained unedited and was present BEFORE the event. This is why one of the qualifications for the prophecy being legitimate is that it must be fulfilled OUTSIDE of the pages of the bible.

All through history, Israel was given the job as a nation to carefully record and preserve Scripture. If it is in scripture it is verified! God worked in that Scripture and by the Scripture. It is not your job to verify it, it was the nation Israel's job. They did that. The government of Israel had scribes who went to ridiculous lengths to get t right. You do not get to sit here centuries after pretending nothing matters unless the shoved it into your university library.
 
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PsychoSarah

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All through history, Israel was given the job as a nation to carefully record and preserve Scripture.
And they mostly did it through memory and passing down the stories orally, not writing them down. So, unless there is a copy of the scripture that still exists that predates the event prophesied, you nor anyone else can safely claim that it was actually made before the event occurred and that it has remained unedited. Seeing as even the Dead Sea scrolls aren't old enough for that, there aren't any copies old enough to do that with.

But surely a book so filled with prophecies has at least 1 that was fulfilled outside of the pages and meets the other requirements I gave, yeah? Or are there truly none which meet all of those requirements?


If it is in scripture it is verified!
Nope, even if every event in the bible was supported by historical and scientific evidence, it wouldn't be verified by virtue of the claims that a deity had a role in what it says.


God worked in that Scripture and by the Scripture. It is not your job to verify it, it was the nation Israel's job. They did that. The government of Israel had scribes who went to ridiculous lengths to get t right. You do not get to sit here centuries after pretending nothing matters unless the shoved it into your university library.
-_- you are a silly man if you think modern college students regularly take out books from the college library. I've checked out a book there all of once in 5 years.

Verified the documents how? Last I checked, Yahweh doesn't have a signature of any kind.
 
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redleghunter

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And an extremely biased one at that. Not contemporary. Not independend.
And not corroborated outside of it in any way. At least not for the actual relevant parts.
What would be an ancient example meeting the above criteria?

Answer is none and you nuke history.

The accounts of the ancients are in the voice and opinion of the conquering empires. They had no peers to write about them because the peers were conquered.

What you are after is some neutral disinterested party confirming a historical event which is contemporary of the time period. Which is a false premise to hold in ancient history.

Empires tell our history and what they left behind. Empires conquered and subdued other empires and frankly the Bible tells us this being a neutral source as the Israelites were conquered or enslaved by most of the major empires of history.

If people really researched how we got our history today they would be surprised I think to find out it was 10th century Catholic and Orthodox monks who preserved antiquity for the West and near East. Not just the Bible but Plato, Pliny and the writings of Caesar and volumes of Roman empire history. All in the hands of Christians transcribing documents hundreds of years old.

Yet the Bible has the best and most reliable manuscript history of them all.
 
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DogmaHunter

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What would be an ancient example meeting the above criteria?

Take Julius Ceasar. There's plenty of contemporary and independend corroborating evidence there.

Let's take his conquest of Gaul.
He kept a diary.
Couriers going back and forward between Rome and Ceasar's legions also reported to the senate. And this included spies from Ceasar's enemies in Rome (and he had lots of them... pretty much most of the Senate, lead by Pompei)

So we have Ceasar's diary where he details certain battles and strategies.
We have independend and corroborating writings from people in Rome, telling the same story.
We can go to the location sites of the battlegrounds and find Roman artefacts and things that corroborate the fact that battles took place there. We can show a Roman presence in these regions during the time of this conquest.
We can also look at Gaul and Germanic cultures, which also make mention of those same battles and that same conquest campaign.
And the list goes on and on.

Answer is none and you nuke history.

Clearly, that isn't true.

The accounts of the ancients are in the voice and opinion of the conquering empires. They had no peers to write about them because the peers were conquered.

This is just not correct. The conquered ones also had survivors. They also had neighbouring cultures who knew what went down and who weren't conquered. And then there's also the archeological finds of artefacts on those very battlegrounds. Etc etc.

Also, the Roman accounts of Ceasar's conquest are in fact written by Ceasar's enemies. When Ceasar returned from Gaul, he took his legions with them and into Rome. The Senate, lead by Pompei, fled and were eventually defeated by Ceasar in Greece (if I remember correctly).

To say that this is of the same order as bible stories, is to seriously misrepresent the historical sciences and what we actually and primarily how we know what we know.

What you are after is some neutral disinterested party confirming a historical event which is contemporary of the time period. Which is a false premise to hold in ancient history.

Independend doesn't necessarily mean "neutral disinterested", nore must it even be a testimonial account. Suppose Julius Ceasar's record claims that his 13th legion did battle in a field near Paris. And suppose you go to that field, start digging and find the remains of Roman soldiers wearing a banner of the 13th legion dating to the correct period... That would be independend contemporary evidence.

Gallic / Germanic records mentioning said battle would be corroborative as well.

When Pliny the Younger writes down christian claims that he heared from christians, then that is not corroborative of the biblical claims... Instead, that's just repeating those claims.

Empires tell our history and what they left behind. Empires conquered and subdued other empires and frankly the Bible tells us this being a neutral source as the Israelites were conquered or enslaved by most of the major empires of history.

The bible is a religious book written and maintained by believers of said religion. It is the very opposite of neutral.

If people really researched how we got our history today they would be surprised I think to find out it was 10th century Catholic and Orthodox monks who preserved antiquity for the West and near East. Not just the Bible but Plato, Pliny and the writings of Caesar and volumes of Roman empire history. All in the hands of Christians transcribing documents hundreds of years old.

So?

Yet the Bible has the best and most reliable manuscript history of them all.

Prove it. With extra biblical sources.
 
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redleghunter

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Take Julius Ceasar. There's plenty of contemporary and independend corroborating evidence there.

Let's take his conquest of Gaul.
He kept a diary.
Couriers going back and forward between Rome and Ceasar's legions also reported to the senate. And this included spies from Ceasar's enemies in Rome (and he had lots of them... pretty much most of the Senate, lead by Pompei)

So we have Ceasar's diary where he details certain battles and strategies.
We have independend and corroborating writings from people in Rome, telling the same story.
We can go to the location sites of the battlegrounds and find Roman artefacts and things that corroborate the fact that battles took place there. We can show a Roman presence in these regions during the time of this conquest.
We can also look at Gaul and Germanic cultures, which also make mention of those same battles and that same conquest campaign.
And the list goes on and on.
These are all Roman sources and those conquered by Rome. All of which any written accounts even Caesar's own writings have a gap of 1,000 years from original to earliest manuscript copy.

Artifacts are confirming and that is why based on the manuscript history and the artifacts we know Rome existed. Is it your point that there is archeological evidence of historical events in the OT and NT? If so, here is some light reading on the matter by Sir William Ramsay archeologist:

The bearing of recent discovery on the trustworthiness of the New Testament : Ramsay, William Mitchell, Sir, 1851-1939 : Free Download & Streaming : Internet Archive

The above tome is from the early 20th century and since then have been more discoveries.

Clearly, that isn't true.
You do nuke history holding the NT to a different standard as other ancient history. The manuscript evidence shows your bias.

This is just not correct. The conquered ones also had survivors. They also had neighbouring cultures who knew what went down and who weren't conquered. And then there's also the archeological finds of artefacts on those very battlegrounds. Etc etc.

Also, the Roman accounts of Ceasar's conquest are in fact written by Ceasar's enemies. When Ceasar returned from Gaul, he took his legions with them and into Rome. The Senate, lead by Pompei, fled and were eventually defeated by Ceasar in Greece (if I remember correctly).

Where are these writings by conquered Germans and Gaulic scholars? What is their manuscript history from original to first copy? You must now apply your own standard to your own claims.

What does internal civil war between triumvirate rivals have to do with historical neutrality? They were all Romans. If there is a neutral Egyptian source which gives the account, please post it and also its manuscript history.

To say that this is of the same order as bible stories, is to seriously misrepresent the historical sciences and what we actually and primarily how we know what we know.
Actually no, as the difference between the ancient histories of the time, the Israelites and Jews recorded their history through scribes and prophets who recorded the good, the bad and the ugly. As it stands, and as Josephus points out, the Hebrews did not sugarcoat their history as the Greeks did:

[38] For we have not an innumerable multitude of books among us, disagreeing from and contradicting one another, [as the Greeks have,] but only twenty-two books, 1 which contain the records of all the past times; which are justly believed to be divine; and of them five belong to Moses, which contain his laws and the traditions of the origin of mankind till his death. This interval of time was little short of three thousand years; but as to the time from the death of Moses till the reign of Artaxerxes king of Persia, who reigned after Xerxes, the prophets, who were after Moses, wrote down what was done in their times in thirteen books. The remaining four books contain hymns to God, and precepts for the conduct of human life. It is true, our history hath been written since Artaxerxes very particularly, but hath not been esteemed of the like authority with the former by our forefathers, because there hath not been an exact succession of prophets since that time; and how firmly we have given credit to these books of our own nation is evident by what we do; for during so many ages as have already passed, no one has been so bold as either to add any thing to them, to take any thing from them, or to make any change in them; but it is become natural to all Jews immediately, and from their very birth, to esteem these books to contain Divine doctrines, and to persist in them, and, if occasion be willingly to die for them. For it is no new thing for our captives, many of them in number, and frequently in time, to be seen to endure racks and deaths of all kinds upon the theatres, that they may not be obliged to say one word against our laws and the records that contain them; whereas there are none at all among the Greeks who would undergo the least harm on that account, no, nor in case all the writings that are among them were to be destroyed; for they take them to be such discourses as are framed agreeably to the inclinations of those that write them; and they have justly the same opinion of the ancient writers, since they see some of the present generation bold enough to write about such affairs, wherein they were not present, nor had concern enough to inform themselves about them from those that knew them; examples of which may be had in this late war of ours, where some persons have written histories, and published them, without having been in the places concerned, or having been near them when the actions were done; but these men put a few things together by hearsay, and insolently abuse the world, and call these writings by the name of Histories. (Flavius Josephus. The Works of Flavius Josephus. Translated by. William Whiston, A.M. Auburn and Buffalo. John E. Beardsley. 1895.)
(Flavius Josephus, Against Apion, BOOK I, Whiston section 8)

Independend doesn't necessarily mean "neutral disinterested", nore must it even be a testimonial account. Suppose Julius Ceasar's record claims that his 13th legion did battle in a field near Paris. And suppose you go to that field, start digging and find the remains of Roman soldiers wearing a banner of the 13th legion dating to the correct period... That would be independend contemporary evidence.

Again, you assume there are no archeological evidence confirming the Biblical history. Again I offer some light reading.

The bearing of recent discovery on the trustworthiness of the New Testament : Ramsay, William Mitchell, Sir, 1851-1939 : Free Download & Streaming : Internet Archive

If you so choose to accept to read, and when finished, I will walk you through all the discoveries since then as in the Dead Sea Scrolls (DSS).
Gallic / Germanic records mentioning said battle would be corroborative as well.
Show them and their manuscript history.


When Pliny the Younger writes down christian claims that he heared from christians, then that is not corroborative of the biblical claims... Instead, that's just repeating those claims.

Indeed and as the earliest reliable manuscript evidence of any of Julius Caesar's works is over 1,000 years from his life and works.

Yet do your question the Pliny the Younger as a historian? Did he not verify his statements with what was the current scholarship of his contemporaries? Either Pliny the Younger is reliable or he is not. Yet you would want me to toss out of all his works because he believed, in your opinion, a Christian fable?

Again you nuke ancient history.

The bible is a religious book written and maintained by believers of said religion. It is the very opposite of neutral.

Please see Josephus' comments as I posted above. Israel was a theocratic nation and every nation in the world was a theocratic nation as well. There is validated history throughout the OT and NT canon. Just about every empire conquered or enslaved the Israelites/Jews and they wrote about it in great detail. Unlike their contemporary kingdoms and empires they recorded the good, the bad and the ugly.

Everyone had 'religion' back then. There were no secular atheist kingdoms, or empires in antiquity. We don't get to such until the Soviet Empire in modern times.

Prove it. With extra biblical sources.

Indeed, and you have seen this before:

6507.etdv_table.png


5140.etdv_homer.png
 
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redleghunter

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I said:
If people really researched how we got our history today they would be surprised I think to find out it was 10th century Catholic and Orthodox monks who preserved antiquity for the West and near East. Not just the Bible but Plato, Pliny and the writings of Caesar and volumes of Roman empire history. All in the hands of Christians transcribing documents hundreds of years old.
You said:

So? So the very history of all Western cultures (not just the Bible) was in the hands of Christian religious authorities since the fall of the Roman empire. Perhaps they corrupted purposely the text of the ancients? Yet your appeal to ancient texts other than the Bible is your basis for an independent source. Again nuking ancient history.
 
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Speedwell

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Dad and Redleg,

You obviously have strong beliefs about the Book of Daniel and its place in Christian theology. You also have an impressive body of apologetics to support your position. Many Christians agree with you about it.

On the other hand, many do not agree with you about it, and your characterization of us as liars, slanderers and worse is vicious, offensive and entirely unwarranted.
 
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redleghunter

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On the other hand, many do not agree with you about it, and your characterization of us as liars, slanderers and worse is vicious, offensive and entirely unwarranted.
If you can point out my slander I will be more than willing to apologize. I think the strongest language I used was that those who hold an untenable screening criteria standard to Scriptures end up "nuking all ancient history" if we apply said standard to all ancient history.
 
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