I was wondering what the LCMS and WELS view is about the use of contraception (between married couples, it goes without saying it would be sinful as part of fornication).
I've become convinced that the use of contraception, even between couples, can be viewed as objectively sinful. For a couple of reasons:
1) I view Gen 1:28 as a command, and not just a blessing. I see contraception as trying to go around this command by God, in a way, the first commandment given.
2) I view the so called sin of Onana as being one where he was commanded to produce children, but deliberately decided not to. (Gen 38).
3) I view some statements in 1 Tim 2 and 1 Tim 5 as implying, but not proving, that the primary purpose of marriage is child rearing.
4) I see no evidence before the Lambeth conference in 1930 that contraception was allowed by Christians and many instances where it was viewed as sinful.
I realize that none of these reasons by themselves proves my view. However, I've become convinced that the use of contraception should be viewed as objectively sinful. Am I way off the mark here?
I've become convinced that the use of contraception, even between couples, can be viewed as objectively sinful. For a couple of reasons:
1) I view Gen 1:28 as a command, and not just a blessing. I see contraception as trying to go around this command by God, in a way, the first commandment given.
2) I view the so called sin of Onana as being one where he was commanded to produce children, but deliberately decided not to. (Gen 38).
3) I view some statements in 1 Tim 2 and 1 Tim 5 as implying, but not proving, that the primary purpose of marriage is child rearing.
4) I see no evidence before the Lambeth conference in 1930 that contraception was allowed by Christians and many instances where it was viewed as sinful.
I realize that none of these reasons by themselves proves my view. However, I've become convinced that the use of contraception should be viewed as objectively sinful. Am I way off the mark here?