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Considering Becoming A Sabbath Keeper

BobRyan

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That promise is to Israel and meant for Jews and not gentile Christians, right?

The Ten Commandments forbidding taking God's name in vain - in Ex 20 -- is given to Israel - according to Ex 20:1-2.

The NEW Covenant is just for "The house of Israel and the house of Judah" according to Jer 31:31-33 and still the same in Heb 8:6-10.

The reason we apply all of that to ALL Christians is because of texts like Romans 2 -

Rom 2
25 For circumcision verily profiteth, if thou keep the law: but if thou be a breaker of the law, thy circumcision is made uncircumcision.
26 Therefore if the uncircumcision keep the righteousness of the law, shall not his uncircumcision be counted for circumcision?
27 And shall not uncircumcision which is by nature, if it fulfil the law, judge thee, who by the letter and circumcision dost transgress the law?
28 For he is not a Jew, which is one outwardly; neither is that circumcision, which is outward in the flesh:
29 But he is a Jew, which is one inwardly; and circumcision is that of the heart, in the spirit, and not in the letter; whose praise is not of men, but of God.
 
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BobRyan

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Interesting. I was under the impression that it meant do not eat blood.
That is true - Lev 17 comes to mind.

notice that "Love God with all your heart" Deut 6:5 and "Love your neighbor as yourself" Lev 19:18 are the rock-solid foundation according to Christ of "All the law and the prophets".

So while it is true as Hebrews 10 points out that "He takes away the first to establish the second" when it comes to ceremonial laws based in animal sacrifice - it is not true that all the moral law as it was stated in scripture got deleted at the cross and that includes things that we find in Lev 11 about not eating blood or rats.
 
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BobRyan

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I found this to be rather informative concerning the early churches belief on the Sabbath: http://www.catholic.com/tracts/sabbath-or-sunday

In your linked article - we have this as the start

"Some religious organizations (Seventh-day Adventists, Seventh-Day Baptists, and certain others) claim that Christians must not worship on Sunday but on Saturday, the Jewish Sabbath. They claim that, at some unnamed time after the apostolic age, the Church "changed" the day of worship from Saturday to Sunday.

However, passages of Scripture such as Acts 20:7, 1 Corinthians 16:2, Colossians 2:16-17, and Revelation 1:10 indicate that, even during New Testament times, the Sabbath is no longer binding and that Christians are to worship on the Lord’s day, Sunday, instead."

Notice that in the list of NT texts given not one single text says "week-day-1 is the Sabbath" or "week-day-1 is the Lord's Day" or "we gather every week-day-1 for worship"..

Yet in Acts 18:1-5 we have both Jews and Gentiles gather for Sabbath sermons and hearing the Gospel - "every Sabbath". Where is that for "week-day-1"??

So now - let's do a simple "Sola Scriptura" exercise -

=========================================

====================================

Let's start with the "sola scriptura" case for Sunday vs the Bible Sabbath.


1. There is not one NT or OT text saying "week day 1 is the Holy Day of the LORD" but we DO have that for Sabbath in Is 58:13. (AND we do not have ONE text in the NT or OT that says "week day 1 is the LORD's Day)

2. There is not ONE text in the NT or OT that says that "they met EVERY week-day-1 for gospel teaching" for both Jews AND gentiles but we DO have that for Sabbath in Acts 18:4-6.

3. There is not ONE text in the NT or OT that says "they met week-day-1 after week-day-1 " for anything - but we DO have that in Acts 13 and Acts 17 regarding Sabbath for both Jews AND Gentiles.

4. There is not ONE text in the NT or OT saying "from week day 1 to week day 1 shall ALL MANKIND come before Me to worship" - but we DO have that in Is 66:23 for the Sabbath.

5. There is not ONE text in the NT or OT saying "the Son of man is LORD of week day 1" but we DO have that in the NT for the Sabbath in Mark 2:28.

6. There is not ONE text in the NT saying "there REMAINS therefore a week-day 1 rest for the people of God" but we DO have that for Sabbath in Heb 4.

7. There is not ONE text in NT or OT saying "remember week-day-1 to keep it holy" but we DO have that in Ex 20:8 for the Sabbath.

8. There is NOT ONE text in NT or OT saying it is ok by God if we bend/edit/break/ignore one of the TEN Commandments - but we DO have condemnation for doing such a thing in the NT -- by the Words of Christ Himself! Mark 7:6-13


Mark 7

7 Howbeit in vain do they worship me, teaching for doctrines the commandments of men.
8 For laying aside the Commandment of God, ye hold the tradition of men, as the washing of pots and cups: and many other such like things ye do.
9 And he said unto them, Full well ye reject the commandment of God, that ye may keep your own tradition.
10 For Moses said, Honour thy father and thy mother; and, Whoso curseth father or mother, let him die the death:
11 But ye say, If a man shall say to his father or mother, It is Corban, that is to say, a gift, by whatsoever thou mightest be profited by me; he shall be free.
12 And ye suffer him no more to do ought for his father or his mother;
13 Making the Word of God of none effect through your tradition, which ye have delivered: and many such like things do ye.

That is a case of Christ demonstrating the way that the magisterium is hammered "sola scriptura" in the cases where it's traditions and "doctrines of men" are at odds with scripture
 
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Light of the East

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What lead to all the different Catholic, Orthodox, Protestant denominations was getting away from the Bible - letting man-made tradition be the new "guide" - which is the very thing Paul is condemning in Colossians 2. Also condemned by Christ in Mark 7:6-13

What "man-made traditions?" Suppose you give me a list instead of just making an accusation. Then we can discuss them.
 
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Light of the East

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1. There is not one NT or OT text saying "week day 1 is the Holy Day of the LORD" but we DO have that for Sabbath in Is 58:13. (AND we do not have ONE text in the NT or OT that says "week day 1 is the LORD's Day)

Once again, the Sabbath was under the OLD COVENANT, which is passed away. There would be nothing in the Old Covenant (OT) because the Sabbath was in force and was given as a part of the covenant God had with national Israel. (Exodus 31:6)

2. There is not ONE text in the NT or OT that says that "they met EVERY week-day-1 for gospel teaching" for both Jews AND gentiles but we DO have that for Sabbath in Acts 18:4-6.

Of course there is, you just have to look for it. Open your eyes.

1Co 16:2 Upon the first day of the week let every one of you lay by him in store, as God hath prospered him, that there be no gatherings when I come.

This is one of the indicators that the Christians had started to meet on the first day of the week. The Christians at first did not consider themselves a new religion, but rather a fulfillment of Judaism. As such, it is natural for them to continue to meet on the Sabbath and to participate in the rituals of Judaism. But as time went along and the Jews were resistant to the Gospel and began a serious persecution of the followers of Christ, the Christians withdrew from the Temple and Sabbath worship. There came a point they began to realize that they were no longer intimately connected to Judaism, that something new was on the horizon which was not associated anymore with Jewish worship, other than the foundational prophecies which Judaism had given it.

3. There is not ONE text in the NT or OT that says "they met week-day-1 after week-day-1 " for anything - but we DO have that in Acts 13 and Acts 17 regarding Sabbath for both Jews AND Gentiles.

Act 13:14 But when they departed from Perga, they came to Antioch in Pisidia, and went into the synagogue on the sabbath day, and sat down.

Yes, initially Paul and the Apostles went into the Synagogue to worship and convince their fellow Jews that this Jesus of Nazareth was the promised and expected Messiah. However, as the were rejected, they eventually left their association with the Jews.

You also have forgotten Christ's description of the coming Kingdom. He said that the Kingdom would be as a "mustard seed" which would be planted in the ground. Now a seed looks nothing like the finished tree. It has to grow, mature, and change in form and appearance. That is what happened to the Church, but you insist that the Church was as it should always be. Not so. There was much growth which needed to take place. Look at all the Pauline writings. They were, for the majority, to address issues of living and worship because the Christian faith was something entirely new.


4. There is not ONE text in the NT or OT saying "from week day 1 to week day 1 shall ALL MANKIND come before Me to worship" - but we DO have that in Is 66:23 for the Sabbath.

This appears to be pointing to the New Covenant time in which we live now. This leads to the question, "What is the Sabbath of the New Covenant?" Christ is our Sabbath rest, and that is only possible because of the work He did on the Cross. Therefore, it is entirely appropriate to celebrate the Resurrection on the Third Day as fulfilled and giving us rest. If you celebrate the Sabbath, you are still looking for the rest promised. In other words, denying the reality of Christ's Sabbath rest for us.

5. There is not ONE text in the NT or OT saying "the Son of man is LORD of week day 1" but we DO have that in the NT for the Sabbath in Mark 2:28.

No, Mark is not in the New Covenant. This is a common error. The New Covenant did not start until the death of Christ on the Cross, and we know this because at the instant He died, the veil of the Temple which covered the Holiest of All was rent in two, exposing the Holy Place and making it unfit to ever offer Yom Kippor for the Old Covenant. Jesus was still preaching to Jews in the context of the Old Covenant, still teaching them about God and inviting them to receive Him as Messiah and Lord.

6. There is not ONE text in the NT saying "there REMAINS therefore a week-day 1 rest for the people of God" but we DO have that for Sabbath in Heb 4.

7. There is not ONE text in NT or OT saying "remember week-day-1 to keep it holy" but we DO have that in Ex 20:8 for the Sabbath.

8. There is NOT ONE text in NT or OT saying it is ok by God if we bend/edit/break/ignore one of the TEN Commandments - but we DO have condemnation for doing such a thing in the NT -- by the Words of Christ Himself! Mark 7:6-13

A change in the structure is not the same as ignoring. The same accusation could be made by Jews regarding our worship of the Trinity. To them, that is a violation of not worshiping "other gods" and that it violates the idea of there being ONE God.

Why do you not celebrate the Passover?
Why do you not offer animals in sacrifice?

Why do you not promote circumcision as necessary?

Because these things changed in substance and form with the beginning of the New Covenant. In like manner, the Sabbath day was changed, but not the fact that we are supposed to rest on a day to remember the rest which Christ gave to us through His work on the Cross.
 
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BobRyan

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Studying the Bible without reference to how the very first Christians understood it has led to about 40,000 denominations in the world.
.

What lead to all the different Catholic, Orthodox, Protestant denominations was getting away from the Bible - letting man-made tradition be the new "guide" - which is the very thing Paul is condemning in Colossians 2. Also condemned by Christ in Mark 7:6-13

What "man-made traditions?" Suppose you give me a list instead of just making an accusation. Then we can discuss them.

A perfect example of one - fitting the scope of this thread was already given prior to your post. It is here.

Today at 12:09 AM #43
 
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BobRyan

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DarylFawcett said:
I thought I would add the following that shows that observing the Sabbath in reference to "all flesh" (both Jews & Gentiles):

Isaiah 66:22 ASV For as the new heavens and the new earth, which I will make, shall remain before me, saith Jehovah, so shall your seed and your name remain.
23 And it shall come to pass, that from one new moon to another, and from one Sabbath to another, shall all flesh come to worship before me, saith Jehovah.

Isa 66:22 KJV For as the new heavens and the new earth, which I will make, shall remain before me, saith the LORD, so shall your seed and your name remain.
23 And it shall come to pass, that from one new moon to another, and from one Sabbath to another, shall all flesh come to worship before me, saith the LORD.

NASB - "“And it shall be from new moon to new moon -- And from Sabbath to Sabbath,
All mankind will come to bow
down before Me,” says the Lord" Is 66:23

The "Sabbath was MADE for MANKIND" Mark 2:27 and all mankind comes before God to worship for all eternity "From Sabbath to Sabbath"

But that verse doesn't say that all flesh will keep the Sabbath. It merely says that all flesh will worship before him within a week time frame.

It also says "From one new moon to another", so should we be observing the new moon?

It shows both a monthly cycle and a weekly cycle for corporate worship before God - for all eternity -- after the cross.

And the cycle is "From Sabbath to Sabbath" for the weekly worship events on the day God claims was "made for mankind" as a day of rest and worship.

By contrast we have no "from week-day-1 to week-day-1" worship cycle predicted for all eternity in the actual Bible.
 
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Light of the East

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A perfect example of one - fitting the scope of this thread was already given prior to your post. It is here.

Today at 12:09 AM #43


I answered this in great detail. Go back and read my post. You fail to make the transition from Old to New Covenant and you fail to understand the nature of the Church. It was planted as a mustard seed, according to Christ, and therefore it was in a state of growth, change, and transition during the time that the epistles were written.
 
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BobRyan

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In your linked article - we have this as the start

"Some religious organizations (Seventh-day Adventists, Seventh-Day Baptists, and certain others) claim that Christians must not worship on Sunday but on Saturday, the Jewish Sabbath. They claim that, at some unnamed time after the apostolic age, the Church "changed" the day of worship from Saturday to Sunday.

However, passages of Scripture such as Acts 20:7, 1 Corinthians 16:2, Colossians 2:16-17, and Revelation 1:10 indicate that, even during New Testament times, the Sabbath is no longer binding and that Christians are to worship on the Lord’s day, Sunday, instead."

Notice that in the list of NT texts given not one single text says "week-day-1 is the Sabbath" or "week-day-1 is the Lord's Day" or "we gather every week-day-1 for worship"..

Yet in Acts 18:1-5 we have both Jews and Gentiles gather for Sabbath sermons and hearing the Gospel - "every Sabbath". Where is that for "week-day-1"??

So now - let's do a simple "Sola Scriptura" exercise -

=========================================

====================================

Let's start with the "sola scriptura" case for Sunday vs the Bible Sabbath.


1. There is not one NT or OT text saying "week day 1 is the Holy Day of the LORD" but we DO have that for Sabbath in Is 58:13. (AND we do not have ONE text in the NT or OT that says "week day 1 is the LORD's Day)

2. There is not ONE text in the NT or OT that says that "they met EVERY week-day-1 for gospel teaching" for both Jews AND gentiles but we DO have that for Sabbath in Acts 18:4-6.

3. There is not ONE text in the NT or OT that says "they met week-day-1 after week-day-1 " for anything - but we DO have that in Acts 13 and Acts 17 regarding Sabbath for both Jews AND Gentiles.

4. There is not ONE text in the NT or OT saying "from week day 1 to week day 1 shall ALL MANKIND come before Me to worship" - but we DO have that in Is 66:23 for the Sabbath.

5. There is not ONE text in the NT or OT saying "the Son of man is LORD of week day 1" but we DO have that in the NT for the Sabbath in Mark 2:28.

6. There is not ONE text in the NT saying "there REMAINS therefore a week-day 1 rest for the people of God" but we DO have that for Sabbath in Heb 4.

7. There is not ONE text in NT or OT saying "remember week-day-1 to keep it holy" but we DO have that in Ex 20:8 for the Sabbath.

8. There is NOT ONE text in NT or OT saying it is ok by God if we bend/edit/break/ignore one of the TEN Commandments - but we DO have condemnation for doing such a thing in the NT -- by the Words of Christ Himself! Mark 7:6-13


Mark 7

7 Howbeit in vain do they worship me, teaching for doctrines the commandments of men.
8 For laying aside the Commandment of God, ye hold the tradition of men, as the washing of pots and cups: and many other such like things ye do.
9 And he said unto them, Full well ye reject the commandment of God, that ye may keep your own tradition.
10 For Moses said, Honour thy father and thy mother; and, Whoso curseth father or mother, let him die the death:
11 But ye say, If a man shall say to his father or mother, It is Corban, that is to say, a gift, by whatsoever thou mightest be profited by me; he shall be free.
12 And ye suffer him no more to do ought for his father or his mother;
13 Making the Word of God of none effect through your tradition, which ye have delivered: and many such like things do ye.

That is a case of Christ demonstrating the way that the magisterium is hammered "sola scriptura" in the cases where it's traditions and "doctrines of men" are at odds with scripture

1. There is not one NT or OT text saying "week day 1 is the Holy Day of the LORD" but we DO have that for Sabbath in Is 58:13. (AND we do not have ONE text in the NT or OT that says "week day 1 is the LORD's Day)

Once again, the Sabbath was under the OLD COVENANT, which is passed away. There would be nothing in the Old Covenant (OT) because the Sabbath was in force and was given as a part of the covenant God had with national Israel. (Exodus 31:6)

1. Since you are Roman Catholic according to your profile - then you know that the Sabbath commandment is still admitted to be binding on the saints - even by RCC standards. So says the Catechism... so says Dies Domini. So not sure why you are opposing my post on the basis above.

The Catholic church argument is not that the Ten Commandments have been downsized to "nine" but rather that the Sabbath Commandment still remains binding on the saints - but it is now bend/edited to point to week-day-1 and away from the seventh day as God gave it.

2. Your own "Faith Explained" (commentary on the Baltimore Catechism By Leo Trese complete with Papal Imprimatur) says that there is no Bible reason for transferring the solemnity of the Sabbath commandment "The Lord's Day" as the text says -- to week-day-1 and away from the 7th day Saturday.

3. "Do not take the name of the Lord your God in vain" is also in the Ten Commandments - given to Israel - and never quoted in the NT... is it your claim we are free to break it? The RCC itself does not agree to such a basis for ignoring the TEN Commandments.

4 the "NEW Covenant" of Jer 31:31-33 and Hebrews 8:6-10 is made only with the "House of Israel and the house of Judah" according to the text. The reason it applies to all the saints is because "He is not a Jew who is one outwardly" Romans 2.

5. Your text above does nothing to answer the point raise as point 1 in the post, except it seems to give up on finding any such support for week-day-1 as we see in the post quoted for God's Sabbath.


2. There is not ONE text in the NT or OT that says that "they met EVERY week-day-1 for gospel teaching" for both Jews AND gentiles but we DO have that for Sabbath in Acts 18:4-6.

Of course there is, you just have to look for it. Open your eyes.

1Co 16:2 Upon the first day of the week let every one of you lay by him in store, as God hath prospered him, that there be no gatherings when I come.

This is one of the indicators that the Christians had started to meet on the first day of the week. The Christians at first did not consider themselves a new religion, but rather a fulfillment of Judaism. As such, it is natural for them to continue to meet on the Sabbath and to participate in the rituals of Judaism. But as time went along and the Jews were resistant to the Gospel and began a serious persecution of the followers of Christ, the Christians withdrew from the Temple and Sabbath worship. There came a point they began to realize that they were no longer intimately connected to Judaism, that something new was on the horizon which was not associated anymore with Jewish worship, other than the foundational prophecies which Judaism had given it.

There is no week-day-1 meeting mentioned at all in 1Cor 16:2. Rather there is the "individual" action where each one lays by himself in store - at home at the start of each week. It says nothing about "assemble each week-day-1" and it says nothing about "while assembled on week-day-1 which is the Lord's Day - do this".

All of that would have to be eisegeted read-into-the-text for the sake of bias. it simply is not there without such methods.


3. There is not ONE text in the NT or OT that says "they met week-day-1 after week-day-1 " for anything - but we DO have that in Acts 13 and Acts 17 regarding Sabbath for both Jews AND Gentiles.

Act 13:14 But when they departed from Perga, they came to Antioch in Pisidia, and went into the synagogue on the sabbath day, and sat down.

Yes, initially Paul and the Apostles went into the Synagogue to worship and convince their fellow Jews that this Jesus of Nazareth was the promised and expected Messiah. However, as the were rejected, they eventually left their association with the Jews.

You also have forgotten Christ's description of the coming Kingdom. He said that the Kingdom would be as a "mustard seed" which would be planted in the ground. Now a seed looks nothing like the finished tree. It has to grow, mature, and change in form and appearance. That is what happened to the Church, but you insist that the Church was as it should always be. Not so. There was much growth which needed to take place. Look at all the Pauline writings. They were, for the majority, to address issues of living and worship because the Christian faith was something entirely new.

Here again you point to not text at all saying that Jews and gentiles were meeting "Every week-day-1" for gospel or worship.

Acts 18 4 And he was reasoning in the synagogue every Sabbath and trying to persuade Jews and Greeks.

Another example of "Every Sabbath" gospel worship services in the synagogues where the Gospel is being presented to both Jews and gentiles. no such thing as that sort of reference for week-day-1 not even in the Christian churches.


4. There is not ONE text in the NT or OT saying "from week day 1 to week day 1 shall ALL MANKIND come before Me to worship" - but we DO have that in Is 66:23 for the Sabbath.

This appears to be pointing to the New Covenant time in which we live now. This leads to the question, "What is the Sabbath of the New Covenant?" Christ is our Sabbath rest, and that is only possible because of the work He did on the Cross. Therefore, it is entirely appropriate to celebrate the Resurrection on the Third Day as fulfilled and giving us rest. If you celebrate the Sabbath, you are still looking for the rest promised. In other words, denying the reality of Christ's Sabbath rest for us.

That is circular reasoning - instead of finding a text saying "From week-day-1 to week-day-1" -- you are going to insert a meaning for the term "Sabbath" into the Is 66 text that would be foreign to the writer and his readers. That is circular reasoning - it is not find a true "from week-day-1 to week-day-1 come to worship"


5. There is not ONE text in the NT or OT saying "the Son of man is LORD of week day 1" but we DO have that in the NT for the Sabbath in Mark 2:28.
No, Mark is not in the New Covenant. This is a common error. The New Covenant did not start until the death of Christ on the Cross, and we know this because at the instant He died, the veil of the Temple which covered the Holiest of All was rent in two, exposing the Holy Place and making it unfit to ever offer Yom Kippor for the Old Covenant. Jesus was still preaching to Jews in the context of the Old Covenant, still teaching them about God and inviting them to receive Him as Messiah and Lord.

The argument that we should pay not attention to the teaching of Christ in the Gospels does not survive Matt 28 where Christ tells his followers to go teach others what he taught them.



6. There is not ONE text in the NT saying "there REMAINS therefore a week-day 1 rest for the people of God" but we DO have that for Sabbath in Heb 4.

7. There is not ONE text in NT or OT saying "remember week-day-1 to keep it holy" but we DO have that in Ex 20:8 for the Sabbath.

8. There is NOT ONE text in NT or OT saying it is ok by God if we bend/edit/break/ignore one of the TEN Commandments - but we DO have condemnation for doing such a thing in the NT -- by the Words of Christ Himself! Mark 7:6-13

A change in the structure is not the same as ignoring. The same accusation could be made by Jews regarding our worship of the Trinity. To them, that is a violation of not worshiping "other gods" and that it violates the idea of there being ONE God.

Why do you not celebrate the Passover?
Why do you not offer animals in sacrifice?

Why do you not promote circumcision as necessary?

Hebrews 10 says of "animal sacrifices" and "the blood and bulls and goats" -- "He takes away the first to establish the second" - the NT says specifically that the ceremonies based in animal sacrifices had ended - and so also in Hebrews 7 did the earthly priesthood end.

in Christ,

Bob
 
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BobRyan

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One Catholic Author - of a commentary on the Baltimore Catechism - after Vatican II describes it this way

=====================================================

Leo Trese in his book "The Faith Explained" -- commentary on the Baltimore Catechism after Vatican II -

The Faith Explained (an RC commentary on the Baltimore catechism post Vatican ii) states on Page 242 that
====================begin short summary
changing the Lord's day to Sunday was in the power of the church since "in the gospels ..Jesus confers upon his church the power to make laws in his name".

page 243

"Nothing is said in the bible about the change of the Lord's day From Saturday to Sunday. We know of the change only from the tradition of the Church - a fact handed down to us...that is why we find so illogical the attitude of many Non-Catholics, who say that they will believe nothing unless they can find it in the bible and Yet will continue to keep Sunday as the Lord's day on the say-so of the Catholic church"

====================================== begin expanded quote

. (from "The Faith Explained" page 243

"
we know that in the O.T it was the seventh day of the week - the Sabbath day - which was observed as the Lord's day. that was the law as God gave it...remember to keep holy the Sabbath day.. the early Christian church determined as the Lord's day the first day of the week. That the church had the right to make such a law is evident...

The reason for changing the Lord's day from Saturday to Sunday lies in the fact that to the Christian church the first day of the week had been made double holy...

nothing is said in the bible about the change of the Lord's day from Saturday to Sunday..that is why we find so illogical the attitude of many non-Catholic who say they will believe nothing unless they can find it in the bible and yet will continue to keep Sunday as the Lord's day on the say-so of the Catholic church
================================================


And how does the Bible define the "Solemnity" - the blessed, sanctified and binding obligation of the Sabbath -- in actual scripture.

Gen 2
2 Thus the heavens and the earth were completed, and all their hosts. 2 By the seventh day God completed His work which He had done, and He rested on the seventh day from all His work which He had done. 3 Then God blessed the seventh day and sanctified it, because in it He rested from all His work which God had created and made.

Ex 20: 8, 11
8 “Remember the sabbath day, to keep it holy.

11 For in six days the Lord made the heavens and the earth, the sea and all that is in them, and rested on the seventh day; therefore the Lord blessed the Sabbath day and made it holy.

So how is that the Law of God is up for "edit" for change? For taking one of the Commandments - and "repointing it" so that now "another day" is blessed, sanctified, and made holy??
 
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BobRyan

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I answered this in great detail. Go back and read my post. You fail to make the transition from Old to New Covenant and you fail to understand the nature of the Church. It was planted as a mustard seed, according to Christ, and therefore it was in a state of growth, change, and transition during the time that the epistles were written.

already answered here -
4 minutes ago #50
 
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Light of the East

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1. Since you are Roman Catholic according to your profile - then you know that the Sabbath commandment is still admitted to be binding on the saints - even by RCC standards. So says the Catechism... so says Dies Domini. So not sure why you are opposing my post on the basis above.

I am not Roman....go back and read my profile. I am Eastern Orthodox in Communion with Rome. There are some significant differences between the East and West. The Sabbath is binding on the saints? From where do you get that?

2. Your own "Faith Explained" (commentary on the Baltimore Catechism By Leo Trese complete with Papal Imprimatur) says that there is no Bible reason for transferring the solemnity of the Sabbath commandment "The Lord's Day" as the text says -- to week-day-1 and away from the 7th day Saturday.

3. "Do not take the name of the Lord your God in vain" is also in the Ten Commandments - given to Israel - and never quoted in the NT... is it your claim we are free to break it? The RCC itself does not agree to such a basis for ignoring the TEN Commandments.

Please try to be honest with me. There is no verse in Scripture which states that commandment you gave is attached directly to the Covenant of God. I showed you Exodus 31: 6 which directly states that the Sabbath is part of the covenant with the Jews.

4 the "NEW Covenant" of Jer 31:31-33 and Hebrews 8:6-10 is made only with the "House of Israel and the house of Judah" according to the text. The reason it applies to all the saints is because "He is not a Jew who is one outwardly" Romans 2.

The House of Israel is the congregation of believers. Israel does not mean Jew. Israel is the name given to all believers. As you mentioned, Paul clarified this by pointing out that being a Jew in the New Covenant is about being part of the New Covenant congregation as a believer.

5. Your text above does nothing to answer the point raise as point 1 in the post, except it seems to give up on finding any such support for week-day-1 as we see in the post quoted for God's Sabbath.

2. There is not ONE text in the NT or OT that says that "they met EVERY week-day-1 for gospel teaching" for both Jews AND gentiles but we DO have that for Sabbath in Acts 18:4-6.

There is no week-day-1 meeting mentioned at all in 1Cor 16:2. Rather there is the "individual" action where each one lays by himself in store - at home at the start of each week. It says nothing about "assemble each week-day-1" and it says nothing about "while assembled on week-day-1 which is the Lord's Day - do this".

All of that would have to be eisegeted read-into-the-text for the sake of bias. it simply is not there without such methods.

Act 20:7 And upon the first day of the week, when the disciples came together to break bread, Paul preached unto them, ready to depart on the morrow; and continued his speech until midnight.

Why were the disciples meeting to have the Eucharist on Sunday? Seems that they already were making some change in the day of worship.


3. There is not ONE text in the NT or OT that says "they met week-day-1 after week-day-1 " for anything - but we DO have that in Acts 13 and Acts 17 regarding Sabbath for both Jews AND Gentiles.

Here again you point to not text at all saying that Jews and gentiles were meeting "Every week-day-1" for gospel or worship.

Acts 18 4 And he was reasoning in the synagogue every Sabbath and trying to persuade Jews and Greeks.

Another example of "Every Sabbath" gospel worship services in the synagogues where the Gospel is being presented to both Jews and gentiles. no such thing as that sort of reference for week-day-1 not even in the Christian churches.

That is circular reasoning - instead of finding a text saying "From week-day-1 to week-day-1" -- you are going to insert a meaning for the term "Sabbath" into the Is 66 text that would be foreign to the writer and his readers. That is circular reasoning - it is not find a true "from week-day-1 to week-day-1 come to worship"

Why would the first century Christians meet on Sunday? From whom did they learn such a thing? As early as the beginning of the second century, we see this:

The Epistle of Ignatius to the Magnesians 8-10 (c. 110 A.D.)
"Do not be deceived by strange doctrines or antiquated myths, since they are worthless. For if we continue to live accordance with Judaism, we admit that we have not received grace. For the most godly prophets lived in accordance with Christ Jesus. This is why they were persecuted, being inspired as they were by His grace in order that those who are disobedient might be fully convinced that there is one God who revealed Himself through Jesus Christ His Son, who is His Word which came forth from silence, who in every respect pleased Him who sent Him.
If, then, those who had lived in antiquated practices came to newness of hope, no longer keeping the Sabbath but living in accordance with the Lord's day, on which our life also arose through Him and His death (which some deny), the mystery through which we came to believe, and because of which we patiently endure, in order that we might be found to be disciples of Jesus Christ, our only teacher, how can we possibly live without Him, whom even the prophets, who were His disciples in the Spirit, were expecting as their teacher? Because of this He for whom they rightly waited raised them from the dead when He came. Therefore let us not be unaware of His goodness. For if He were to imitate the way we act, we are lost. Therefore, having become His disciples, let us learn to live in accordance with Christianity. For whoever is called by any other name than this one does not belong to God. Throw out, therefore, the bad leaven, which has become stale and sour, and reach for the new leaven, which is Jesus Christ. Be salted with Him, so that none of you become rotten, for by your odor you will be examined. It is utterly absurd to profess Jesus Christ and to practice Judaism. For Christianity did not believe in Judaism, but Judaism in Christianity, in which "every tongue" believed and "was brought together" to God."

Where did Ignatius get such an idea, especially seeing that he was a contemporary of the Apostles.



5. There is not ONE text in the NT or OT saying "the Son of man is LORD of week day 1" but we DO have that in the NT for the Sabbath in Mark 2:28.

The argument that we should pay not attention to the teaching of Christ in the Gospels does not survive Matt 28 where Christ tells his followers to go teach others what he taught them.

Yeah, well here's the thing.....the Scriptures also say this:

Jhn 21:25 And there are also many other things which Jesus did, the which, if they should be written every one, I suppose that even the world itself could not contain the books that should be written. Amen.

What makes you think that all that Jesus taught the Apostles was limited to the writings of the Apostles? What makes you think that Jesus didn't give the Apostles instructions on the coming of the New Covenant?

6. There is not ONE text in the NT saying "there REMAINS therefore a week-day 1 rest for the people of God" but we DO have that for Sabbath in Heb 4.

7. There is not ONE text in NT or OT saying "remember week-day-1 to keep it holy" but we DO have that in Ex 20:8 for the Sabbath.

Like I said.....Exodus 31:6. Sabbath is part of the Old Covenant.


8. There is NOT ONE text in NT or OT saying it is ok by God if we bend/edit/break/ignore one of the TEN Commandments - but we DO have condemnation for doing such a thing in the NT -- by the Words of Christ Himself! Mark 7:6-13

Hebrews 10 says of "animal sacrifices" and "the blood and bulls and goats" -- "He takes away the first to establish the second" - the NT says specifically that the ceremonies based in animal sacrifices had ended - and so also in Hebrews 7 did the earthly priesthood end.

There is no verse (remember, you are claiming "sola scriptura" here) that says specifically and directly that the Levitical priesthood has ended. But there is John 20:23 in which Jesus gives the Apostles the powers and authority of a priest to hear and forgive sins. That is strange action indeed from the all-knowing Son of God if you know that your death is about to end the priesthood.

Secondly, there is an end to animal sacrifices so that the perfect Sacrifice - the Lamb of God - can be offered for our sins. If there is a Lamb of God, then there must be a priesthood to bring it to the people for their sins. This is another occasion where the shadow and type of the OT is fulfilled in the NT. Jesus is the Lamb of God which is offered for our sins and the sins of the world. Thus, we need priests to bring Him to us.
 
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BobRyan

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1. Since you are Roman Catholic according to your profile - then you know that the Sabbath commandment is still admitted to be binding on the saints - even by RCC standards. So says the Catechism... so says Dies Domini. So not sure why you are opposing my post on the basis above.

I am not Roman....go back and read my profile. I am Eastern Orthodox in Communion with Rome. There are some significant differences between the East and West. The Sabbath is binding on the saints? From where do you get that?

interesting - do you have an EO statement saying that that 10 Commandments no longer apply or that they have been downsized to 9??
======================== quote

From http://www.pravoslavieto.com/docs/eng/Orthodox_Catechism_of_Philaret.htm

65. Where may we find the elements of the doctrine of charity?
In the Ten Commandments of the Law of God.


490. You said that these Commandments were given to the people of Israel: must we, then, also walk by them?
We must: for they are in substance the same law which, in the words of St. Paul, has been written in the hearts of all men, that all should walk by it.

491. Did Jesus Christ teach men to walk by the Ten Commandments?

He bade men, if they would attain to everlasting life, to keep the Commandments and taught us to understand and fulfill them more perfectly than had been done before he came. Matt xix. 17, and v.

On the Division of the Commandments into Two Tables.

492. What means the division of the Ten Commandments into two tables?

This: that they contain two kinds of love--love to God, and love to our neighbor; and prescribe two corresponding kinds of duties.
================================ end quote


If you don't have a "downsized to nine" statement - then why do you argue for "the 9 commandments" or the "deleted 10"??
 
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BobRyan

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3. "Do not take the name of the Lord your God in vain" is also in the Ten Commandments - given to Israel - and never quoted in the NT... is it your claim we are free to break it? The RCC itself does not agree to such a basis for ignoring the TEN Commandments.

Please try to be honest with me. There is no verse in Scripture which states that commandment you gave is attached directly to the Covenant of God. I showed you Exodus 31: 6 which directly states that the Sabbath is part of the covenant with the Jews.

"From Sabbath to Sabbath shall ALL Mankind come before Me to worship " Is 66:23 -- There were no JEWS at Sinai - it was ALL ISRAEL at sinai because the term "JEW" was not in use then - until only the kingdom of Judah remained. Exodus 31 mentions "Israel" but not "Jews".


4 the "NEW Covenant" of Jer 31:31-33 and Hebrews 8:6-10 is made only with the "House of Israel and the house of Judah" according to the text. The reason it applies to all the saints is because "He is not a Jew who is one outwardly" Romans 2.

The House of Israel is the congregation of believers. Israel does not mean Jew. Israel is the name given to all believers. As you mentioned, Paul clarified this by pointing out that being a Jew in the New Covenant is about being part of the New Covenant congregation as a believer.

Indeed you seem to have shot your own argument in the foot just then.

So also does the EO catechism seem to shoot your argument in the foot as we see here

7 minutes ago #54
 
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BobRyan

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The House of Israel is the congregation of believers. Israel does not mean Jew. Israel is the name given to all believers. As you mentioned, Paul clarified this by pointing out that being a Jew in the New Covenant is about being part of the New Covenant congregation as a believer.

5. Your text above does nothing to answer the point raise as point 1 in the post, except it seems to give up on finding any such support for week-day-1 as we see in the post quoted for God's Sabbath.

2. There is not ONE text in the NT or OT that says that "they met EVERY week-day-1 for gospel teaching" for both Jews AND gentiles but we DO have that for Sabbath in Acts 18:4-6.

There is no week-day-1 meeting mentioned at all in 1Cor 16:2. Rather there is the "individual" action where each one lays by himself in store - at home at the start of each week. It says nothing about "assemble each week-day-1" and it says nothing about "while assembled on week-day-1 which is the Lord's Day - do this".

All of that would have to be eisegeted read-into-the-text for the sake of bias. it simply is not there without such methods.

Act 20:7 And upon the first day of the week, when the disciples came together to break bread, Paul preached unto them, ready to depart on the morrow; and continued his speech until midnight.

Why were the disciples meeting to have the Eucharist on Sunday? Seems that they already were making some change in the day of worship.

The text you quote says they met on that ONE sunday because Paul was about to spend all day traveling. Since they are meeting at night it means they are meeting on Saturday evening and then Paul plans 'all day travel" on Sunday.

But what you don't have is "they meet every week-day-1 to break bread" or "Week day 1 is the Lord's Day" or ...

3. There is not ONE text in the NT or OT that says "they met week-day-1 after week-day-1 " for anything - but we DO have that in Acts 13 and Acts 17 regarding Sabbath for both Jews AND Gentiles.

Here again you point to not text at all saying that Jews and gentiles were meeting "Every week-day-1" for gospel or worship.

Acts 18 4 And he was reasoning in the synagogue every Sabbath and trying to persuade Jews and Greeks.

Another example of "Every Sabbath" gospel worship services in the synagogues where the Gospel is being presented to both Jews and gentiles. no such thing as that sort of reference for week-day-1 not even in the Christian churches.

That is circular reasoning - instead of finding a text saying "From week-day-1 to week-day-1" -- you are going to insert a meaning for the term "Sabbath" into the Is 66 text that would be foreign to the writer and his readers. That is circular reasoning - it is not find a true "from week-day-1 to week-day-1 come to worship"

Why would the first century Christians meet on Sunday? From whom did they learn such a thing? As early as the beginning of the second century, we see this:

The Epistle of Ignatius to the Magnesians 8-10 (c. 110 A.D.)

1. You are not quoting the Bible.
2. You are quoting one of the most forged sources known to mankind even by Catholic standards. Of 15 supposed letters of Ignatius 8 are confirmed forgeries and the other 7 are disputed. All of them "conveniently found" in the 19th century??


Recall that the list I gave you begins with "Sola Scriptura" as the context.


As per the OP -- anyone thinking of becoming SDA cannot seriously be at war against the Bible doctrine of "Sola Scriptura"


 
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BobRyan

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3. There is not ONE text in the NT or OT that says "they met week-day-1 after week-day-1 " for anything - but we DO have that in Acts 13 and Acts 17 regarding Sabbath for both Jews AND Gentiles.

Here again you point to not text at all saying that Jews and gentiles were meeting "Every week-day-1" for gospel or worship.

Acts 18 4 And he was reasoning in the synagogue every Sabbath and trying to persuade Jews and Greeks.

Another example of "Every Sabbath" gospel worship services in the synagogues where the Gospel is being presented to both Jews and gentiles. no such thing as that sort of reference for week-day-1 not even in the Christian churches.

That is circular reasoning - instead of finding a text saying "From week-day-1 to week-day-1" -- you are going to insert a meaning for the term "Sabbath" into the Is 66 text that would be foreign to the writer and his readers. That is circular reasoning - it is not find a true "from week-day-1 to week-day-1 come to worship"

5. There is not ONE text in the NT or OT saying "the Son of man is LORD of week day 1" but we DO have that in the NT for the Sabbath in Mark 2:28.

The argument that we should pay not attention to the teaching of Christ in the Gospels does not survive Matt 28 where Christ tells his followers to go teach others what he taught them.

Yeah, well here's the thing.....the Scriptures also say this:

Jhn 21:25 And there are also many other things which Jesus did, the which, if they should be written every one, I suppose that even the world itself could not contain the books that should be written. Amen.

What makes you think that all that Jesus taught the Apostles was limited to the writings of the Apostles? What makes you think that Jesus didn't give the Apostles instructions on the coming of the New Covenant?

The NEW Covenant is in Jer 31:31-33 -- it is made with the house of Israel and it says "I will write My LAWs on their heart and mind"-- your own Catechism says this includes the TEN Commandments.


6. There is not ONE text in the NT saying "there REMAINS therefore a week-day 1 rest for the people of God" but we DO have that for Sabbath in Heb 4.

7. There is not ONE text in NT or OT saying "remember week-day-1 to keep it holy" but we DO have that in Ex 20:8 for the Sabbath.

Like I said.....Exodus 31:6. Sabbath is part of the Old Covenant.

There is nothing in the NEW Covenant that says "NOT the LAW of God" rather it points TO the LAW of God known to Jeremiah and His readers. Even your own Catechism says the TEN Commandments are the LAW of the NEW Covenant.


8. There is NOT ONE text in NT or OT saying it is ok by God if we bend/edit/break/ignore one of the TEN Commandments - but we DO have condemnation for doing such a thing in the NT -- by the Words of Christ Himself! Mark 7:6-13

Hebrews 10 says of "animal sacrifices" and "the blood and bulls and goats" -- "He takes away the first to establish the second" - the NT says specifically that the ceremonies based in animal sacrifices had ended - and so also in Hebrews 7 did the earthly priesthood end.

There is no verse (remember, you are claiming "sola scriptura" here) that says specifically and directly that the Levitical priesthood has ended.

Hebrews 7
11 Now if perfection was through the Levitical priesthood (for on the basis of it the people received the Law), what further need was there for another priest to arise according to the order of Melchizedek, and not be designated according to the order of Aaron? 12 For when the priesthood is changed, of necessity there takes place a change of law also. 13 For the one concerning whom these things are spoken belongs to another tribe, from which no one has officiated at the altar.
...
18 For, on the one hand, there is a setting aside of a former commandment because of its weakness and uselessness 19 (for the Law made nothing perfect), and on the other hand there is a bringing in of a better hope, through which we draw near to God.
..
23 The former priests, on the one hand, existed in greater numbers because they were prevented by death from continuing, 24 but Jesus, on the other hand, because He continues forever, holds His priesthood permanently. 25 Therefore He is able also to save forever those who draw near to God through Him, since He always lives to make intercession for them.
26 For it was fitting for us to have such a high priest, holy, innocent, undefiled, separated from sinners and exalted above the heavens; 27 who does not need daily, like those high priests, to offer up sacrifices, first for His own sins and then for the sins of the people, because this He did once for all when He offered up Himself. 28 For the Law appoints men as high priests who are weak, but the word of the oath, which came after the Law, appoints a Son, made perfect forever.

Heb 8
Now the main point in what has been said is this: we have such a high priest, who has taken His seat at the right hand of the throne of the Majesty in the heavens, 2 a minister in the sanctuary and in the true tabernacle, which the Lord pitched, not man. 3 For every high priest is appointed to offer both gifts and sacrifices; so it is necessary that this high priest also have something to offer. 4 Now if He were on earth, He would not be a priest at all, since there are those who offer the gifts according to the Law; 5 who serve a copy and shadow of the heavenly things,
 
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Dave-W

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"I would study the official decision of the first Jerusalem Council recorded in Acts 15.
There were only 4 OT commands that were REQUIRED by gentile believers ."

That is not true as we see in Romans 13, in James 2, and in Eph 6:2.
In Eph 6:2 "Honor thy father and mother ... this is the FIRST commandment with a promise" -- and that is only true if one is looking at the unit-of-TEN.
The Saints "KEEP the Commandments of God AND their faith in Jesus" Rev 14:12
The "Baptist Confession of Faith" Section 19, the "Westminster Confession of Faith" section 19.... the Catholic Dies Domini document - by Pope John Paul II - and even their Catechism - admits that the TEN Commandments are still binding on Christians. This is irrefutable.
Look at it like this: Acts 15 is to the New Covenant the same way Exodus 20 was to the Mosaic covenant.

Ex 20 gave us the 10 commandments. But then the Lord went on over the next 3 books to give another 603 commands.

IN the same way, God spoke to the apostles and the result was written in Acts 15. It was SPECIFICALLY addressed to gentile believers. If you do NOT believe that then read how James, who gave the ruling, understood it concerning believing Jews in Acts 21.17-26.

The Sabbath is BINDING on the Jews. Not so with gentile believers. BUT, they are free to enter in to the Sabbath and thereby reap its benefits.
 
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BobRyan

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Interesting. I was under the impression that it meant do not eat blood.

That is true - Lev 17 comes to mind.

notice that "Love God with all your heart" Deut 6:5 and "Love your neighbor as yourself" Lev 19:18 are the rock-solid foundation according to Christ of "All the law and the prophets".

So while it is true as Hebrews 10 points out that "He takes away the first to establish the second" when it comes to ceremonial laws based in animal sacrifice - it is not true that all the moral law as it was stated in scripture got deleted at the cross and that includes things that we find in Lev 11 about not eating blood or rats.

Except Lev 17 is covered by "strangled."

Lev 17 is indeed affirmed in the Acts 15 prohibition against things "strangled" because Lev 17 prohibits the eating of blood. God's people were commandment to drain the blood from the animal rather than strangling it - and so they would avoid "eating blood".

God did not allow Israel or even the gentile that stayed with them - to eat blood.

See Lev 17.
10 ‘And whatever man of the house of Israel, or of the strangers who dwell among you, who eats any blood, I will set My face against that person who eats blood, and will cut him off from among his people. 11 For the life of the flesh is in the blood, and I have given it to you upon the altar to make atonement for your souls; for it is the blood that makes atonement for the soul.’ 12 Therefore I said to the children of Israel, ‘No one among you shall eat blood, nor shall any stranger who dwells among you eat blood.’
13 “Whatever man of the children of Israel, or of the strangers who dwell among you, who hunts and catches any animal or bird that may be eaten, he shall pour out its blood and cover it with dust; 14 for it is the life of all flesh. Its blood sustains its life. Therefore I said to the children of Israel, ‘You shall not eat the blood of any flesh, for the life of all flesh is its blood. Whoever eats it shall be cut off.’
15 “And every person who eats what died naturally or what was torn by beasts, whether he is a native of your own country or a stranger, he shall both wash his clothes and bathe in water, and be unclean until evening. Then he shall be clean. 16 But if he does not wash them or bathe his body, then he shall bear his guilt.”


Just as in Ex 20:8-11 God did not allow Israel - or the gentile that stayed with them "within their gates" to violate the weekly creation Sabbath memorial.

In the same way in Lev 11 and in Isaiah 66 there is condemnation for those who choose to eat rats.. be they Israel or gentiles.
 
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