Desmios,
1 Tim. 2:5 - "For there is one God, and one Mediator between God and men."
You have just violated one of God's commands by subtracting from 1 Tim. 2:5 the phrase, "the MAN Christ Jesus." Why my friend? Hasn't anybody told you NOT to ADD to nor SUBTRACT from the word of God?
Think about this my friend. When apostle Paul wrote 1 Tim. 2:5, where was Jesus? Wasn't Jesus already in heaven? If that is the case, don't you believe that apostle Paul was telling the TRUTH when he said the the "only mediator between God and men" is the MAN Christ Jesus who was then and is NOW in heaven?
I don't have to respond to the remainder of your post regarding this issue because it is moot and academic. Apostle Paul has declared that the ONLY ONE who is MEDIATING for us NOW is the MAN Christ Jesus and he is in heaven.
The most conclusive verse of scripture for the Orthodox position is John 10:30 - "I and my Father are one."
WITHOUT adding anything to John 10:30, it does NOT support the belief that Jesus is ALSO God IN ADDITION to the FATHER. Other than the Trinitarian interpretation that Jesus and the Father are one...God, this verse could also mean that Jesus and the Father are one...shepherd, considering the CONTEXT.
In addition to this there are many scriptures which attribute divine attributes to Christ.
Onmipresence - Mt. 118:20; 28:20; Jn 3:13
Self-existence - Jn 5:26
Eternity - Jn 8:58; Jn 17:5
Equality with God - Jn 10:27-30
Divine knowledge - Mt 11:27; Jn 10:15
Christ even claims for himself the divine name in Jn 8:58 and other passages throughout the Gospel of John with the expression I AM (Ex 3:13,14)
These verses do NOT explicitly tell us that Jesus is God and could be interpreted in more than one way.
On the other hand, John 8:40 EXPLICITLY tells us that
Jesus is a MAN and John 17:3 EXPLICITLY tell us that the FATHER is the ONLY TRUE God. There is NO OTHER interpretation that could be ascribed to these verses.
Finally, read the first chapter of the Gospel of John, it conclusively says that the Word (Jesus Christ) was God.
John 1:1 and the first part of John 1:14 do NOT refer to Jesus. Consider the following my friend and answer them sincerely and HONESTLY:
1) Do you believe that EVERYTHING apostle John wrote is TRUE (John 21:24)?
2) Do you believe that EVERYTHING Jesus said is TRUE (John 14:6)?
3) Do you believe that EVERYTHING Jesus said is a COMMAND from God (John 12:49)?
4) Do you believe that apostle John and 500 others SAW Jesus AFTER he was raised from the dead (1 Cor. 15:5-
?
If you answered YES to this questions, then apostle John DID NOT BELIEVE that Jesus is God. You know why? Because he wrote in John 1:18 that "NO ONE has ever SEEN God at ANY time."
Either your interpretation of John 1:1 and John 1:14 (word became man) is FALSE or John was telling a LIE when he wrote "NO ONE has ever SEEN God at any time" in John 1:18.
I don't believe John was telling a LIE my friend. Do you?
Ed