Catholics, what exactly do you believe about Mary?

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Evan Briggs

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Yes, so did all the early reformers.

If this is so what does this scripture mean to you?

“Then Joseph being raised from sleep did as the angel of the Lord had bidden him, and took unto him his wife: And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name JESUS.”
‭‭Matthew‬ ‭1:24-25‬ ‭KJV‬‬
Matthew 1:24-25; Then Joseph being raised from sleep did as the angel of the Lord had bidden him, and took unto him his wife: And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name JESUS.
 
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Major1

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How do Fundamental Christian churches, which have their own distinct theology, and often boast that they are “separated,” obey God’s command that Christians “all speak the same thing, and that there be no divisions among you; but that ye be perfectly joined together in the same mind and in the same judgment” (1 Cor. 1:10)?

Hebrews 13:17 says, "Obey your leaders and submit to their authority. They keep watch over you as men who must give an account. Obey them so that their work will be a joy, not a burden, for that would be of no advantage to you."

What is the expiration date of this verse?

Fundamental Christian DO NOT have a distinct theology which they call their own.

They simply believe the Bible as it is written is for men as they are......lost and need a Saviour.

You are welcome and I invite you to discuss any and all Scriptures you would like to post. I do not think that you will like to do that with me but I will certainly debate them with you.

You just posted 1 Corinthians 1:10 and it seems that you are trying to use it to validate that I and all Protestants should think as you do as a Catholic.

I agree totally with that quote and ask you that shouldn't it apply to you as a Catholic as well? Have you seen me be sarcastic or argumentative toward you? Have you witnessed anyone on the thread call me a liar, and distort my words and out right lie about something I did not say. Can you be honest and answer that question?

We all should be able to discussion differences civilly without anger and division but alas, you can see that can not happen with some. We should not be clawing each other to death and hating one another.

Then you posted Hebrews 13:17............
The correct teaching on that verse has NOTHING to do with the differences between Protestants and Catholic doctrine. Maybe I am wrong but it seems as if you are using that verse to say that we who do not agree with Catholic doctrine should obey you. If that is not the case then what is the point of using the verse.

That is not what the verse says or is implying at all. It is all about the PASTOR of your church. If he is teaching the Word of God and leading people to Christ then he is to be obeyed and followed.

My dear friends, please listen and understand this Bible fact. It would be better to not ever have heard the Word of God, than to hear it and then not obey it.
 
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Major1

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I'm sorry Major1, but blaming others, and not taking full responsibilty for your words makes your apology seem disingenuous.



How about a Sola Scripturist as yourself.... agree it's unbiblical?



Once again Major1, in other words, it is a unbiblical man-made tradition. (Charles Finney?) Is that what you are claiming? Are there Altar Calls in the church you attend? If so, does your church actually have an altar?



Major1, I've searched and searched Scripture to see where Rom.10:9 is refured to as "The Sinners Prayer." Is my failing eye sight forbidding me from finding it? Could you post it? Or would it too be unbiblical?

However, what my research did lead me too was the sinner's prayer, as known today, was invented by twentieth century preachers. There were many versions, but this one seemed to be the most common:

"Heavenly Father, I know that I am a sinner and that I deserve to go to hell. I believe that Jesus Christ died on the cross for my sins. I do now receive him as my Lord and personal Savior. I promise to serve you to the best of my ability. Please save me. In Jesus’ name, Amen.”

Again, I was unable to find these words in Holy Scripture. Now as a sola scripturists, wouldn't you agree that this prayer is of a man-made tradition, and the sentiments of this prayer are found nowhere in the literature of the New Testament that pertains to the sinner’s responsibility under the law of Christ?



Okay....He (Kepha31) asked you....... "what verse in Scripture lists the books belonging in the Bible?"

Now I did read your responce to Kepha31 on post #1070. However, what I did not read was an answer to his question. I beleive Kepha31 was asking you to show a specific passage from scripture that shows this list. Something you failed to do. As a person that adhere's to the doctrine of sola scriptura, (as I was before my conversion to Catholicism) you do beleive that the bible alone is sufficient as a sole rule of faith... do you not? If so, wouldn't you think that knowing of this list, would/should be a major part of Scripture? So again I will ask... "what verse in Scripture lists the books belonging in the Bible?"

Then my encouragement to you is that you reject the apology.

I gave you understanding and I am not going to tyoe that again neither will I copy and paste it from the comment made.

If you choose to reject the term "Sinners Prayer" you have my foundest thoughts. Now if a man who is a sinner does not does not pray a prayer of forgivness how do YOU propose that a man gets saved?????

I for one have read ...........
Acts 2:21........
“And it shall be, that whosoever shall call on the name of the Lord shall be saved.

Acts 2:38........
“And Peter said unto them, Repent ye, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins; and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Spirit” .

Acts 22:16.....
“And now why tarriest thou? arise, and be baptized and wash away thy sins, calling on his name” .

They speak to me and clearly give a foundation for the process of a man saying a prayer of repentance or a "Sinners Prayer."

YOU however are correct in that the exact words "Sinners Prayer" are not found in the Scriptures.

Neither is the Rapture, the Trinity, the Catholic Church, the Veneration of Mary, Purgatory or the Rosary.
 
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Albion

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For example, we have Clement writing while John the Apostle was still living,
"Through countryside and city the apostles preached, and they appointed their earliest converts, testing them by the Spirit, to be the bishops and deacons of future believers. Nor was this a novelty, for bishops and deacons had been written about a long time earlier. . . . Our apostles knew through our Lord Jesus Christ that there would be strife for the office of bishop. For this reason, therefore, having received perfect foreknowledge, they appointed those who have already been mentioned and afterwards added the further provision that, if they should die, other approved men should succeed to their ministry" First Epistle of Clement Letter to the Corinthians 42:4–5, 44:1–3 A.D. 80"
I have to agree that what Clement says in this regard is strong evidence of the functioning of deacons and bishops in the late first century churches, but, as he indicates, most of this is recorded in Scripture. What it does not do is establish anything as concerns Papal Supremacy or Apostolic Succession as it is understood in the Catholic churches.
 
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Major1

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I have to agree that what Clement says in this regard is strong evidence of the functioning of deacons and bishops in the late first century, but as he says this fact is to be found in Scripture. What it does not do is establish anything as concerns Papal Supremacy or Apostolic Succession as it is understood in the Catholic churches.

And that is correct and exactly what I have been saying.
 
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Major1

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Major1

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This is the ancient and pious opinion of the Christian Church. Not only Catholics, but Orthodox, many Lutherans, and many Anglicans.

The perpetual virginity of the Blessed Virgin mother of our Lord has been the historic opinion since ancient times.

"That the Son became man in this manner, that He was conceived, without the cooperation of man, by the Holy Ghost, and was born of the pure, holy [and always]* Virgin Mary. Afterwards He suffered, died, was buried, descended to hell, rose from the dead, ascended to heaven, sits at the right hand of God, will come to judge the quick and the dead, etc., as the Creed of the Apostles, as well as that of St. Athanasius, and the Catechism in common use for children, teach." - Smalcald Articles I.IV

*The original Latin reads

"Filius ita factus est homo, ut a Spiritu Sancto sine virili opera conciperetur, et ex Maria, pura, sancta sempervirgine nasceretur. ..."

-CryptoLutheran

You are correct in your statement. Having done a paper many years ago on Martin Luther, I found that he believed that as well.

However, that does not make it truth now does it?

What is truth??? John 17:17 says.............
"Sanctify them with truth, MY WORD IS TRUTH".

Matt. 13:55-56 says........
“Is this not the carpenter’s son? Is not His mother called Mary? And His brothers James, Joses, Simon, and Judas? And His sisters, are they not all with us? Where then did this Man get all these things?”

Mark 6:3...........
“Is this not the carpenter, the Son of Mary, and brother of James, Joses, Judas, and Simon? And are not His sisters here with us?” So they were offended at Him."

Some have suggested these brothers and sisters were cousins or more distant relations. That is in fact ADDING to the Word of God. If true, why didn’t the writers use the Greek term for cousins (anepsios)? The Greek word did exist and was used in Scripture repeatedly.
If they were more distant relatives, then why not use a Greek word that meant relatives such as suggenes, such as the one describing Mary and Elizabeth’s relational status in Luke 1:36?
Why did Matthew and Mark use the words most commonly translated as brothers (adelphos) and sisters (adelphe)? In any other context no one would have questioned this meaning.

THE ONLY
reason why anyone would suggest COUSIN instead of accepting what it actually written is to perpetuate the error and false teaching that Mary was a perpetual virgin.

I know that you will not accept my comment so may I suggest something from A logical point concerning this passage which was brought up by expositor Adam Clarke in his commentary:

Why should the children of another family be brought in here to share a reproach which it is evident was designed for Joseph the carpenter, Mary his wife, Jesus their son, and their other children? Prejudice apart, would not any person of plain common sense suppose, from this account, that these were the children of Joseph and Mary, and the brothers and sisters of our Lord, according to the flesh?
Is the Perpetual Virginity of Mary a Biblical View?

Having said that, please accept my invitation to believe whatever you choose to believe.
 
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Goatee

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YES He did. What is your point?
He lives in heaven at the right hand of God as our intercessor.
How could any one SEE Jesus today?

Don't you think that that would be up to Jesus? Do you think it is impossible for Jesus to appear to anyone these days?
 
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Goatee

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You are correct in your statement. Having done a paper many years ago on Martin Luther, I found that he believed that as well.

However, that does not make it truth now does it?

What is truth??? John 17:17 says.............
"Sanctify them with truth, MY WORD IS TRUTH".

Matt. 13:55-56 says........
“Is this not the carpenter’s son? Is not His mother called Mary? And His brothers James, Joses, Simon, and Judas? And His sisters, are they not all with us? Where then did this Man get all these things?”

Mark 6:3...........
“Is this not the carpenter, the Son of Mary, and brother of James, Joses, Judas, and Simon? And are not His sisters here with us?” So they were offended at Him."

Some have suggested these brothers and sisters were cousins or more distant relations. That is in fact ADDING to the Word of God. If true, why didn’t the writers use the Greek term for cousins (anepsios)? The Greek word did exist and was used in Scripture repeatedly.
If they were more distant relatives, then why not use a Greek word that meant relatives such as suggenes, such as the one describing Mary and Elizabeth’s relational status in Luke 1:36?
Why did Matthew and Mark use the words most commonly translated as brothers (adelphos) and sisters (adelphe)? In any other context no one would have questioned this meaning.

THE ONLY
reason why anyone would suggest COUSIN instead of accepting what it actually written is to perpetuate the error and false teaching that Mary was a perpetual virgin.

I know that you will not accept my comment so may I suggest something from A logical point concerning this passage which was brought up by expositor Adam Clarke in his commentary:

Why should the children of another family be brought in here to share a reproach which it is evident was designed for Joseph the carpenter, Mary his wife, Jesus their son, and their other children? Prejudice apart, would not any person of plain common sense suppose, from this account, that these were the children of Joseph and Mary, and the brothers and sisters of our Lord, according to the flesh?
Is the Perpetual Virginity of Mary a Biblical View?

Having said that, please accept my invitation to believe whatever you choose to believe.

All your view. You have been shown the correct view but refuse it, just like we refuse your 'wrong' view
 
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Fidelibus

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YOU however are correct in that the exact words "Sinners Prayer" are not found in the Scriptures.

Thanks. However, still waiting for you to show what verse lists the books belonging in the Bible?
 
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Goatee

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Fundamental Christian DO NOT have a distinct theology which they call their own.

They simply believe the Bible as it is written is for men as they are......lost and need a Saviour.

You are welcome and I invite you to discuss any and all Scriptures you would like to post. I do not think that you will like to do that with me but I will certainly debate them with you.

You just posted 1 Corinthians 1:10 and it seems that you are trying to use it to validate that I and all Protestants should think as you do as a Catholic.

I agree totally with that quote and ask you that shouldn't it apply to you as a Catholic as well? Have you seen me be sarcastic or argumentative toward you? Have you witnessed anyone on the thread call me a liar, and distort my words and out right lie about something I did not say. Can you be honest and answer that question?

We all should be able to discussion differences civilly without anger and division but alas, you can see that can not happen with some. We should not be clawing each other to death and hating one another.

Then you posted Hebrews 13:17............
The correct teaching on that verse has NOTHING to do with the differences between Protestants and Catholic doctrine. Maybe I am wrong but it seems as if you are using that verse to say that we who do not agree with Catholic doctrine should obey you. If that is not the case then what is the point of using the verse.

That is not what the verse says or is implying at all. It is all about the PASTOR of your church. If he is teaching the Word of God and leading people to Christ then he is to be obeyed and followed.

My dear friends, please listen and understand this Bible fact. It would be better to not ever have heard the Word of God, than to hear it and then not obey it.

From what I have witnessed you have been sarcastic and very childish too.

I never called you a liar, you just twisted what I said to play the martyr! I never called you a liar.

You just continuously tell people that only you have the correct interpretation of scripture and that the Catholic interpretations are wrong! This, from a pastor of a non-denom church!
 
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Outdoorsy

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That makes sense, realizing that when Jesus publicly read scripture in the synagogue in Nazareth on the Sabbath day, saying this scripture was fulfilled in the onlookers' eyes that very day, some were offended because he seemed a man of ordinary appearance, from an ordinary carpenter's family, and with siblings.
 
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Major1

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2 Timothy 3:12-17

Note verse 14-15. It admonishes Timothy to do three things:

1) Remember what you have learned and firmly believed (Tradition)
2) Know from whom you learned it (Magisterium)
3) Know you have the Scriptures

The Bible on St. Paul's list comes in third, not first. He actually gives here the traditional Catholic teaching on the three sources of sound teaching.

In verse 15 he goes into an excursus on the Bible. This brief excursus emphasizes the value of the Bible and recommends a fourfold method of exegesis. This verse was used in the pre-Reformation Church as a proof text for the Quadriga which was the standard Catholic approach to the Bible. The Quadriga method used the following four categories:

Literal/Literary (teaching) - the text as it is written
Analogical (reproof) - matters of faith
Anagogical (correction) - matters of hope/prophecy
Moral (training in righteousness) - matters of charity
(also found in the catechism CCC 115-118)

The analogical, anagogical and moral senses of the Bible were known collectively as the spiritual senses.
The 'reformers' rejected the BIBLICAL fourfold method of exegesis in favor of a more literal approach,
and ignored 2 Tim 3:16!!!


D. Roman Catholic School: The Allegorism of Roman Catholicism employed a “spiritual” or “mystical” interpretation of the Word. The Catholic interpreter accepts what The Church has said about various matters as
unequivocal truth. They believe that The Church is the official interpreter.

The Roman Catholic “Guide to Interpretation” is that interpretation:

1. must be solely about faith and morals.
2. is not bound by national or scientific matters.
3. must bear witness to Catholic tradition.
4. must have a unanimous witness by the Church Fathers.
5. is to be explained by unwritten tradition when the passage is obscure.
6. follows the “Principle of Development” meaning the doctrines of the New Testament were ‘seeds’ and
not complete units in themselves.
7. also follows the “Principle of Implication” which is called “Epigenesis” meaning that doctrines grow,
develop and change.

Historical Schools of Literalists


The literal method of interpreting the Bible is to accept as basic the literal rendering of the sentences unless by virtue of the nature of the sentence or phrase this is not possible. This allows for figures of speech, fables and allegories.

A. Jewish Literal School: Ezra founded this school when he translated the Hebrew to Aramaic for the Jews who were coming out of captivity (Neh 8:1-8). The Jewish Canons of interpretation were that:

1. the Word is to be understood in terms of sentence and the sentence by its context.

2. one should compare similar topics of scripture and give the clear passages preference over the obscure.
3. one must pay close attention to spelling, grammar, and figures of speech.
4.Logic is be used to apply scripture to life in circumstances where the Bible is silent.

The Reformers: involved a renewed study of Hebrew and Greek. Erasmus published the first Greek Ne
Testament in 1516. The Reformer Martin Luther held the following hermeneutical principles:

1. The Psychological Principle which recognized faith and illumination.
2. The Authority Principle which held that the Bible is the supreme authority and is above church authority.
3. The Literal Principle, which rejected allegory as, used by the Catholics.
4. They accepted the primacy of the original languages and paid attention to grammar, time frame, circumstances, conditions, and context.
5. The Sufficiency Principle, which indicates that the Bible is a clear book and a devout student, can understand it. This includes the fact that Scripture interprets scripture, so one must let the clear interpret the obscure.
6. They also employed the "Analogy of Faith" which was believed to be the theological
unity of the Bible and not the recognized dogma of an institution.

7. The Christological Principle states that the function of all interpreters is to find Chris

The Law-Gospel Principle which recognizes that the Law is not necessary for salvation.

In the Post-Reformation Era Ernesti published Institutio Interpretis in 1761 which stated that grammatical exegesis has authority over dogmatic exegesis which was the RCC method.
(http://www.sgbcmodesto.com/Classroom Papers/Hermeneutics).
 
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Major1

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That makes sense, realizing that when Jesus publicly read scripture in the synagogue in Nazareth on the Sabbath day, saying this scripture was fulfilled in the onlookers' eyes that very day, some were offended because he seemed a man of ordinary appearance, from an ordinary carpenter's family, and with siblings.

Yes it doses. I learned a long time ago but I have forgotten the term, but when the simplest explination makes the most sense, it is usually the best sense.
 
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Major1

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I'm sorry Major1, but blaming others, and not taking full responsibilty for your words makes your apology seem disingenuous.



How about a Sola Scripturist as yourself.... agree it's unbiblical?



Once again Major1, in other words, it is a unbiblical man-made tradition. (Charles Finney?) Is that what you are claiming? Are there Altar Calls in the church you attend? If so, does your church actually have an altar?



Major1, I've searched and searched Scripture to see where Rom.10:9 is refured to as "The Sinners Prayer." Is my failing eye sight forbidding me from finding it? Could you post it? Or would it too be unbiblical?

However, what my research did lead me too was the sinner's prayer, as known today, was invented by twentieth century preachers. There were many versions, but this one seemed to be the most common:

"Heavenly Father, I know that I am a sinner and that I deserve to go to hell. I believe that Jesus Christ died on the cross for my sins. I do now receive him as my Lord and personal Savior. I promise to serve you to the best of my ability. Please save me. In Jesus’ name, Amen.”

Again, I was unable to find these words in Holy Scripture. Now as a sola scripturists, wouldn't you agree that this prayer is of a man-made tradition, and the sentiments of this prayer are found nowhere in the literature of the New Testament that pertains to the sinner’s responsibility under the law of Christ?



Okay....He (Kepha31) asked you....... "what verse in Scripture lists the books belonging in the Bible?"

Now I did read your responce to Kepha31 on post #1070. However, what I did not read was an answer to his question. I beleive Kepha31 was asking you to show a specific passage from scripture that shows this list. Something you failed to do. As a person that adhere's to the doctrine of sola scriptura, (as I was before my conversion to Catholicism) you do beleive that the bible alone is sufficient as a sole rule of faith... do you not? If so, wouldn't you think that knowing of this list, would/should be a major part of Scripture? So again I will ask... "what verse in Scripture lists the books belonging in the Bible?"

As for "Sola Scriptura", YES I believe that is the best way to understand the Scriptures.
" Sola scriptura" means that Scripture alone is authoritative for the faith and practice of the Christian. The Bible is complete, authoritative, and true.

2 Tim 3:16.........
“All Scripture is God-breathed and is useful for teaching, rebuking, correcting and training in righteousness”.
 
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As for "Sola Scriptura", YES I believe that is the best way to understand the Scriptures.
" Sola scriptura" means that Scripture alone is authoritative for the faith and practice of the Christian. The Bible is complete, authoritative, and true.

2 Tim 3:16.........
“All Scripture is God-breathed and is useful for teaching, rebuking, correcting and training in righteousness”.

Where are those words 'Sola Scripture' mentioned in the Bible Mr Literal Bible reader?
 
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kepha31

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If this is so what does this scripture mean to you?

“Then Joseph being raised from sleep did as the angel of the Lord had bidden him, and took unto him his wife: And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name JESUS.”
‭‭Matthew‬ ‭1:24-25‬ ‭KJV‬‬
Matthew 1:24-25; Then Joseph being raised from sleep did as the angel of the Lord had bidden him, and took unto him his wife: And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name JESUS.
Scripture’s statement that Joseph "knew [Mary] not until she brought forth her firstborn" would not necessarily mean they did "know" each other after she brought forth Jesus. Until is often used in Scripture as part of an idiomatic expression similar to our own usage in English. I may say to you, "Until we meet again, God bless you." Does that necessarily mean after we meet again, God curse you? By no means. A phrase like this is used to emphasize what is being described before the until is fulfilled. It is not intended to say anything about the future beyond that point. Here are some biblical examples:

  • 2 Samuel 6:23: And Michal the daughter of Saul had no child to (until) the day of her death. (Does this mean she had children after she died?)
  • 1 Timothy 4:13: Until I come, attend to the public reading of scripture, to preaching, to teaching. (Does this mean Timothy should stop teaching after Paul comes?)
  • 1 Corinthians 15:25: For he (Christ) must reign until he has put all his enemies under his feet. (Does this mean Christ’s reign will end? By no means! Luke 1:33 says, "he will reign over the house of Jacob forever and of his kingdom there shall be no end.")
In recent years, some have argued that because Matthew 1:25 uses the Greek words heos hou for "until" whereas the texts I mentioned above from the New Testament use heos alone, there is a difference in meaning. The argument goes that Heos hou indicates the action of the first clause does not continue. Thus, Mary and Joseph "not having come together" would have ended after Jesus was born.

The problems with this theory begin with the fact that no available scholarship concurs with it. In fact, the evidence proves the contrary. Heos hou and heos are used interchangeably and have the same meaning. Acts 25:21 should suffice to clear up the matter: "But when Paul had appealed to be kept in custody for the decision of the emperor, I commanded him to be held until (Gk. heos hou) I could send him to Caesar."

Does this text mean that Paul would not be held in custody after he was "sent" to Caesar? Not according to the biblical record. He would be held in custody while in transit (see Acts 27:1) and after he arrived in Rome for a time (see Acts 29:16). The action of the main clause did not cease with heos hou.
The Case for Mary's Perpetual Virginity | Catholic Answers
 
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Evan Briggs

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Scripture’s statement that Joseph "knew [Mary] not until she brought forth her firstborn" would not necessarily mean they did "know" each other after she brought forth Jesus. Until is often used in Scripture as part of an idiomatic expression similar to our own usage in English. I may say to you, "Until we meet again, God bless you." Does that necessarily mean after we meet again, God curse you? By no means. A phrase like this is used to emphasize what is being described before the until is fulfilled. It is not intended to say anything about the future beyond that point. Here are some biblical examples:

  • 2 Samuel 6:23: And Michal the daughter of Saul had no child to (until) the day of her death. (Does this mean she had children after she died?)
  • 1 Timothy 4:13: Until I come, attend to the public reading of scripture, to preaching, to teaching. (Does this mean Timothy should stop teaching after Paul comes?)
  • 1 Corinthians 15:25: For he (Christ) must reign until he has put all his enemies under his feet. (Does this mean Christ’s reign will end? By no means! Luke 1:33 says, "he will reign over the house of Jacob forever and of his kingdom there shall be no end.")
In recent years, some have argued that because Matthew 1:25 uses the Greek words heos hou for "until" whereas the texts I mentioned above from the New Testament use heos alone, there is a difference in meaning. The argument goes that Heos hou indicates the action of the first clause does not continue. Thus, Mary and Joseph "not having come together" would have ended after Jesus was born.

The problems with this theory begin with the fact that no available scholarship concurs with it. In fact, the evidence proves the contrary. Heos hou and heos are used interchangeably and have the same meaning. Acts 25:21 should suffice to clear up the matter: "But when Paul had appealed to be kept in custody for the decision of the emperor, I commanded him to be held until (Gk. heos hou) I could send him to Caesar."

Does this text mean that Paul would not be held in custody after he was "sent" to Caesar? Not according to the biblical record. He would be held in custody while in transit (see Acts 27:1) and after he arrived in Rome for a time (see Acts 29:16). The action of the main clause did not cease with heos hou.
The Case for Mary's Perpetual Virginity | Catholic Answers

Thank you for the response on this. However, I am asking for your understanding.

Because if we look up the definitions of the term "know" past tense "knew":

6. In scripture, to have sexual commerce with.

King James Bible Dictionary - Reference List - Know

We can see that it also means sexual relations with someone.

Also, if we look at other scriptures that use the term knew that are in same context we can see that it is used for the same meaning.

“And Adam knew Eve his wife; and she conceived, and bare Cain, and said, I have gotten a man from the Lord.”
‭‭Genesis‬ ‭4:1‬ ‭KJV‬‬
Genesis 4:1; And Adam knew Eve his wife; and she conceived, and bare Cain, and said, I have gotten a man from the Lord.#Cain: that is, Gotten, or, Acquired

“And Cain knew his wife; and she conceived, and bare Enoch: and he builded a city, and called the name of the city, after the name of his son, Enoch.”
‭‭Genesis‬ ‭4:17‬ ‭KJV‬‬
Genesis 4:17; And Cain knew his wife; and she conceived, and bare Enoch: and he builded a city, and called the name of the city, after the name of his son, Enoch.#Enoch: Heb. Chanoch

“And Adam knew his wife again; and she bare a son, and called his name Seth: For God, said she, hath appointed me another seed instead of Abel, whom Cain slew.”
‭‭Genesis‬ ‭4:25‬ ‭KJV‬‬
Genesis 4:25; And Adam knew his wife again; and she bare a son, and called his name Seth: For God, said she, hath appointed me another seed instead of Abel, whom Cain slew.#Seth: Heb. Sheth: that is, Appointed, or, Put

“And the damsel was very fair to look upon, a virgin, neither had any man known her: and she went down to the well, and filled her pitcher, and came up.”
‭‭Genesis‬ ‭24:16‬ ‭KJV‬‬
Genesis 24:16; And the damsel was very fair to look upon, a virgin, neither had any man known her: and she went down to the well, and filled her pitcher, and came up.#very…: Heb. good of countenance

Thank you in advanced for your time!
 
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kepha31

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D. Roman Catholic School: The Allegorism of Roman Catholicism employed a “spiritual” or “mystical” interpretation of the Word. The Catholic interpreter accepts what The Church has said about various matters as
unequivocal truth. They believe that The Church is the official interpreter.
The lies blended so neatly is called polemics.

The Roman Catholic “Guide to Interpretation” is that interpretation:

1. must be solely about faith and morals.
2. is not bound by national or scientific matters.
3. must bear witness to Catholic tradition.
4. must have a unanimous witness by the Church Fathers.
5. is to be explained by unwritten tradition when the passage is obscure.
6. follows the “Principle of Development” meaning the doctrines of the New Testament were ‘seeds’ and
not complete units in themselves.
7. also follows the “Principle of Implication” which is called “Epigenesis” meaning that doctrines grow,
develop and change.
Another Protestant telling Catholics what we believe. The Church as official interpreter does not mean no one else can interpret it, which is another Protestant myth. Change in the essence of any doctrine is another Protestant myth. Has this author heard of Dei Verbum?
Nor do Catholics have to interpret every verse of the Bible according to some dogmatic proclamation of the Church. This is another ridiculous (and highly annoying) myth that we hear all the time. Indeed, the orthodox, faithful Catholic must interpret doctrines he derives from Scripture in accordance with the Church and tradition, but so what?

Every Protestant does the same thing within their own denominational tradition. No five-point Calvinist can find a verse in the Bible which proves apostasy or falling away, or one that teaches God's desire for universal, rather than limited atonement (and there are many such passages). He can't deny total depravity in any text, or irresistible grace. We all have orthodox and dogmatic boundaries that we abide by. The Catholic exegete is bound by very little, and has virtually as much freedom of inquiry as the Protestant exegete.
There are only 7 verses the Church has officially interpreted:
Dave Armstrong
The charge that Catholics must abide by every verse in the Bible according to official Church interpretation is another anti-Catholic falsehood.
 
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