Please complete this sentence: When Jesus explains that the provisioning instruction is given to fulfill the prophecy that Jesus be seen a as a transgressor, we need not take Him at his word because
The whole central thrust of my comments to you has been that Christ's words to his disciples in Luke 22:35-38 are not at all concerned with your odd notion that he appear to those about to arrest him in Gethsemane as a criminal in need of arresting. I don't concede at all what you think is self-evident, so finishing the sentence you've constructed above is, to me, rather silly. It is not "taking Jesus at his word" when you twist the quotation from Isaiah that Jesus gives to his disciples to make it fit your preconceived ideas about pacifism. As I have taken pains to explain to you, in quoting Isaiah, Jesus never intended to communicate to his disciples what you contend he was. I have already offered my reasons as to why in earlier posts.
I don't want to "spike the football" but I suggest you will simply not be able to complete this sentence. Can you see how, all other considerations aside, you are denying a clear claim made by Jesus?
While this makes me want to chuckle it also concerns me how thoroughly you've blinded yourself to the actual meaning of Christ's words. If you feel the need to spike something, feel free. But you won't, to use your analogy, be doing so in my end zone, but your own. It is an...interesting rhetorical maneuver to carry on as though it is so evident that your position is also Christ's that any opposition to your view is tantamount to being at odds with him, too. But a rhetorical maneuver is all this is. It is not, in fact, at all obvious that the way you have stretched Christ's meaning in his comments to his disciples is legitimate or warranted. And your camping on the word "for" does nothing, really, to aid your case. In fact, in verse 37 where Christ explains his purpose in referring to Isaiah's prophecy, he says quite plainly, "For the things concerning me have an end" - which is exactly what Isaiah was going on about in Isaiah chapter 53. From this we understand that Christ was thinking of his coming crucifixion and his departure from his disciples, not how best to get himself arrested. And this means that Christ was, indeed, implying that self-defense with a sword was perfectly all right.
2. My explanation first and foremost simply takes Jesus at His word! Unless there is a translation issue, there is no getting around the stark fact that Jesus explains the provisioning instruction as fulfillment of the "transgressor" prophecy. So even if you and others insist this prophecy is restricted to the cross, Jesus clearly thinks otherwise.
This is the whole crux of our disagreement. The issue isn't one of translation but of
interpretation. You're playing a bit fast-and-loose with Christ's words and I'm simply pointing this out. It seems quite obvious - as I've explained - that Jesus' words have nothing to do with getting himself seen as a transgressor in fulfillment of Isaiah's prophecy. As I've already explained quite well, Isaiah's prophecy was not about Jesus' arrest but his death.
To the specifics of what you have posted above: I have pointed out that Jesus's status at the cross (crucified with transgressors) cannot be decoupled from His more general status of being seen as a "transgressor".
What "general status"? Seen by whom as a transgressor? A transgressor of what, exactly? To answer these questions, to understand what Jesus intended when he quoted Isaiah, we have to understand what Isaiah wrote. And when one looks at Isaiah 53 they see that the prophet was occupied with describing the manner of Jesus'
death. Isaiah says not one word about Jesus' arrest. In whose eyes was Jesus seen as a transgressor? Does Isaiah identify the
Pharisees as the ones regarding Christ as a transgressor? No. Particularly in the last half of Isaiah 53, the prophet speaks of
God's view of Christ as he served as the atonement for our sins:
Isaiah 53:10-12
10 Yet it pleased the Lord to bruise Him; He has put Him to grief. When You make His soul an offering for sin, He shall see His seed, He shall prolong His days, And the pleasure of the Lord shall prosper in His hand.
11 He shall see the labor of His soul, and be satisfied. By His knowledge My righteous Servant shall justify many, For He shall bear their iniquities.
12 Therefore I will divide Him a portion with the great, And He shall divide the spoil with the strong, Because He poured out His soul unto death, And He was numbered with the transgressors, And He bore the sin of many, And made intercession for the transgressors.
In the above passage, Isaiah was speaking entirely about God and His attitude and actions toward Jesus as Jesus atoned for our sin. No mention of Pharisees at all by Isaiah. No mention of arrests, either. So, when you come to the instance in Luke 22 where Jesus quotes Isaiah's words above, it is a contortion or a stretching of Isaiah's words to say they referred to Christ being seen and arrested as a transgressor, and a further contortion/stretching of Christ's words to assert this is how he was employing Isaiah's prophecy. I don't, therefore, think you have any cause at all to reject Christ's words to his disciples to arm themselves with swords as his tacit approval of them defending themselves.
So it's not an either/or - Jesus was clearly "numbered with transgressors" in the days leading up to the crucifixion as he increasingly was seen as a threat to the Jewish status quo. I cannot imagine how you will dispute this.
See above.
When Jesus says this: "But now, whoever has a money belt is to take it along, likewise also a bag, and whoever has no sword is to sell his coat and buy one. For I tell you that this which is written must be fulfilled in Me, 'And He was numbered with transgressors’; for that which refers to Me has its fulfillment", He is telling us that ________________________________.
See above (and my last few posts).
Please no cheating by erasing the word "for" - that key word clearly connects the provisioning instruction to "be seen as a transgressor" prophecy.
Sure it does. But not in the way you contend it does.
It certainly seems to me that you are doing the hokey-pokey around these very particular words.
Not at all. I have not had to resort at any point to any hokey-pokey in making my case for what Christ meant in Luke 22:35-37. Really, I think the "hokey-pokey" is all on your side. See above.
Yes, it's fine to talk about the particulars of the
Isaiah 53 prophecy.
Yes, it's OK to introduce the "past" vs "future" dimension of Jesus' broader statement.
But you
must, repeat must, be able to give a coherent ending to the open-ended sentence above to retain any credibility (assuming you are not arguing that there has been a translation error).
I have explained now several times what Jesus meant by what he said in Luke 22:35-37. Finishing your sentence is just a rather silly maneuver by which you are trying to control the flow of our discussion and assert a sort of dominant position in our interaction. I'm not going to oblige.
I am not sure you are being honest since this answer clearly evades the force of an argument that is, frankly, irrefutable.
As I think my comments demonstrate, it is not anywhere near "irrefutable."
Jesus was obviously seen as a "transgressor" before He went to the cross
So? See above.
Selah.