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Biblical Numerology Of The Appearings

Discussion in 'Eschatology - Endtimes & Prophecy Forum' started by carlaimpinge, Jun 13, 2002.

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  1. carlaimpinge

    carlaimpinge New Member

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    Simply amazing. Well folks, there it is for you to see and read.

    He didn't produce ONE VERSE which taught otherwise or refuted ANY STATEMENT made by the prooftexts.

    I'll take one point.

    He didn't tell you WHAT it is, IF it's not the great tribulation.

    He didn't give ANY VERSES to identify what the terms are in the VERSE itself.

    He didn't given ANY VERSES to refute the VERSES of IDENTIFICATION, which were posted.

    He didn't discuss any of the verses which were posted for identification.

    He can't tell you the difference or similarities in the terms, no more than he can tell a jock from a jockstrap, or a tennis ball from tennis elbow.

    He can't discuss the verses, folks.

    He's blind to them. Those eyes have been shut by God, or he's shut his eyes, himself.

    The deceived and the deceiver are his. (Job 12:16)
     
  2. postrib

    postrib Well-Known Member

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     Note that the texts you cited don't state what you state.

    I believe the time of Jacob's trouble and his saving out of it (Jeremiah 30:7-8) will be when all nations will gather against Jerusalem and take it (Zechariah 14:2, Zechariah 12:9) right before Jesus comes to save him by defeating the nations gathered against Jerusalem (Zechariah 14:3-5; Zechariah 12:7-10; Romans 11:26) and "breaking the yoke" off of him (Jeremiah 30:8; Nahum 1:13, 15).

    "That day is great, so that none is like it: it is even the time of Jacob's trouble, but he shall be saved out of it. For it shall come to pass in that day, saith the LORD of hosts, that I will break his yoke from off thy neck, and will burst thy bonds, and strangers shall no more serve themselves of him: But they shall serve the LORD their God, and David their king, whom I will raise up unto them" (Jeremiah 30:7-9).

    Note that none of the verses that were posted identified the time of Jacob's trouble with the entire tribulation.
     
  3. carlaimpinge

    carlaimpinge New Member

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    The man is a blind, deluded, irrational, illiterate LIAR.

    Notice the text stated WHAT I SAID.

    The time of the Jacob's trouble is a DAY, which is GREAT, which includes the TERM, in that day, which IS the day of the Lord throughout the OT. That TIME, which concerns ISRAEL, is characterized as a woman in travail which PAUL ASSOCIATES WITH THE DAY OF THE LORD AS JEREMIAH DOES,

    The man can't read what it says.

    He then states the day of the Lord is when the nations gather against Jerusalem.

    Poor man doesn't KNOW they gather TWICE against Jerusalem. Once at the midst of the week, WHEN IT IS INVADED BY THE SON OF PERDITION. (Zech. 14) That is WHEN they are SCATTERED. Notice that people.

    Again at the END. Joel 3:1-2. Notice THIS TIME, they are gathered for him to plead with, for Israel WHOM THEY HAVE SCATTERED AMONG THE NATIONS, and PARTED MY LAND. Ah yes, the man AGAIN shows his ignorance.

    I have ALREADY posted the verses on the DIVISION of the land, which is IN THAT DAY. The day of the Lord, which took place at the midst of the week upon INVASION. (Micah 4, Daniel 11)

    He's a blind guide.
     
  4. postrib

    postrib Well-Known Member

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    Note that none of the verses you've cited state that the time of Jacob's trouble is the entire tribulation or the day of the Lord, or that the day of the Lord begins before the 2nd coming.

    How can 1 Thessalonians 5:3 be referring to Jeremiah 30:6-7 when the first says "they shall not escape" and the 2nd says "he shall be saved out of it?"

    Must 1 Thessalonians 5:3 be referring to Jeremiah 30:6-7 simply because they both refer to a woman in travail? Must it then also be referring to Jeremiah 49:24; Jeremiah 50:43; Psalm 48:6; Isaiah 13:8; Isaiah 42:14; and Galatians 4:19?

    Note that I have not stated that.

    Note that it doesn't say Zechariah 14:2 happens at the midst of the week, but shows it happening right before the 2nd coming in Zechariah 14:3.

    Note that Joel 3:14 refers to the nations being gathered in "the valley of decision" (compare Joel 3:2, 12) right before the day of the Lord (which it says is "near" at that point), and then Joel 3:15-17 shows Israel's deliverance at the 2nd coming, just as Zechariah 14:1-3 shows the nations being gathered right before the day of the Lord/2nd coming.

    Note that neither chapter states that the day of the Lord will begin before the 2nd coming.
     
  5. carlaimpinge

    carlaimpinge New Member

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    Poor man. Amazing ignorant stupidity isn't it, folks. Not really, though. He's just another deceived deceiver who IGNORES the statements. He's got a system.

    The fool still can't READ the terms in the verse itself, which IDENTIFY it. He still doesn't IDENTIFY what they are, as I have by prooftext.

    The fool can't understand ISRAEL does not ESCAPE (they go INTO the time), but are saved out of it. Simply amazing.

    The man is so dumbfounded he can't STATE what he said, previously.

    He's funnier than the Three Stooges, and just as heretical as any Jehovah Witness.

    What a mess.
     
  6. postrib

    postrib Well-Known Member

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    Can you point out the statements I've ignored?

    Note that the terms in the verse don't require that the time of Jacob's trouble is the entire tribulation or the day of the Lord, as I showed.

    Note that I have identified that day, using scriptures.

    Isn't escaping something and being saved out of something the same thing? But, again, what even requires that 1 Thessalonians 5:3 be referring to Jeremiah 30:6-7? Simply because they both refer to a woman in travail? Must it then also be referring to Jeremiah 49:24; Jeremiah 50:43; Psalm 48:6; Isaiah 13:8; Isaiah 42:14; and Galatians 4:19?

    Isn't stating something and saying something the same thing?

    I don't believe eschatology itself can be heretical because a heretic can't be saved (Galatians 5:20-21), and we aren't saved by our eschatology (Romans 10:9-10).
     
  7. carlaimpinge

    carlaimpinge New Member

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    Amazing redundant ignorance, illiteracy, and infidelity.  The man is LIVING PROOF of the apostasy within the body of Christ, which Paul stated would come.  (2 Tim.3-4, 1 Tim.4)

     
     
  8. postrib

    postrib Well-Known Member

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    Do you believe that anyone who doesn't hold to a mid-week eschatology has "departed from the faith" (1 Timothy 4:1) and is "reprobate concerning the faith?" (2 Timothy 3:8)
     
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