Asking for interpretations of this cladogram

PsychoSarah

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"it's exceedingly unlikely for the mutations that resulted in that inner ear structure to happen twice in separate lineages"

Sarah really? You cannot say mutations resulted in that ear structure (you simply do not know that).
To which I ask again, why would a designer design a bunch of organisms, with various degrees of intermediate traits between a land mammal and whales, all having a unique inner ear not seen in any other organisms or "designed pseudolineage"? To troll humanity (that might explain putting a 10 foot penis on an aquatic mammal, lol)?

This could have been the structure as it always was (that is just as likely).
Given the immense amount of evidence for evolution, I wouldn't call that equally likely, but even if there was a creation event and Pakicetus was a special creation, why would that mean whales are too? We don't find any whale fossils that date nearly as old as Pakicetus. I see no reason that evolution as it is currently understood wouldn't proceed regardless of whether or not the organisms at the start were created or not.


And yes similarity within anatomical and physiological aspects of different forms, in different organisms, do exist without having to fall on any imagined ancestral relations.
Similar, but not the same. That's why we can distinguish convergent evolution from shared ancestry.

We have actual whale fossils from all the way across the world dating to only 14 million years later (and they obviously had already been around).
Same applies to Pakicetus; I doubt the fossils found mark the earliest that it ever existed. Also, funny, "only" 14 million years, as if that isn't enough time. The speed at which evolutionary developments occur is not the same for every organism, and will change as a result of natural selection pressures. For example, the reason why the evolution of the brain in the human lineage happened so fast (within 2 million years!) is because of drastic environmental changes occurring within that time strongly selecting for intelligence.


We needed to attach a lineage to support the already pre-held belief.
Why? Also, did you forget the picture I posted that showed the other relevant fossil species to whales and dolphins?

Of course, if you want a lineage, it's a lot easier to find one for an individual species than the shared one between different ones, since it cuts out the most recent ancestors not shared between both groups. I mean, if I was doing this for chimps and humans, I'd have to cut out all the bipeds.
 
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PsychoSarah

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Perspective:

Tiny Pakicetus (around 50mya) is believed to have existed about 15my (according to other fossils found) but huge Baleen Whales already existed fully formed at least 35mya (which places them fully formed near Peru when Paki was still living in Pakistan). Can’t you see the conflict of interpretation of the data?

No no no, your source talks about Mystacodon selenensis, a Baleen whale RELATIVE.
this https://4.bp.blogspot.com/-SlumcnNZ...s-Gismondi_et-al_paleoArt-Alberto_Gennari.jpg

is not the same as this http://newsroom.ucr.edu/images/releases/2439_0hi.jpg

Also, your source DOES NOT say that this species and Pakicetus were living at the same time at all, nor can I find any that give the range of it existing for 15 million years. I sure hope you didn't get that by skimming this: "Hippos likely evolved from a group of anthracotheres about 15 million years ago, the first whales evolved over 50 million years ago, and the ancestor of both these groups was terrestrial. These first whales, such as Pakicetus, were typical land animals."

Pakicetus is a genus, of course, so it is entirely possible for one species from that genus to give rise to whales, while another remains relatively unchanged for a few million years, but I would still like to know where you got that 15 million year range exactly.

The story simply does not accurately portray the facts, because in the sci fi hypothesis driven narrative (we are taught is likely the truth), Paki is followed by Ambulo, and then others (on the way to whale-ness), while fully formed whales already existed.
I think you might have misread something, but I would like some more sources for the dates to be able to fact check.
 
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Bungle_Bear

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"When somebody says "You could show a, b or c..... you pick" in my part of the world the implication is that you get to pick from a, b or c. Options d, e and f are not on the table."

All you had to do was read and not try to read into...Sarah got the point...she gave an intelligent response (and I'll even bet we can agree to disagree and still respect one another) and is defending her position well.
Whatever. It's in black and white several times for the literate to see what you really said.
 
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pshun2404

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To which I ask again, why would a designer design a bunch of organisms, with various degrees of intermediate traits between a land mammal and whales, all having a unique inner ear not seen in any other organisms or "designed pseudolineage"? To troll humanity (that might explain putting a 10 foot penis on an aquatic mammal, lol)?

Given the immense amount of evidence for evolution, I wouldn't call that equally likely, but even if there was a creation event and Pakicetus was a special creation, why would that mean whales are too? We don't find any whale fossils that date nearly as old as Pakicetus. I see no reason that evolution as it is currently understood wouldn't proceed regardless of whether or not the organisms at the start were created or not.

Similar, but not the same. That's why we can distinguish convergent evolution from shared ancestry.

Same applies to Pakicetus; I doubt the fossils found mark the earliest that it ever existed. Also, funny, "only" 14 million years, as if that isn't enough time. The speed at which evolutionary developments occur is not the same for every organism, and will change as a result of natural selection pressures. For example, the reason why the evolution of the brain in the human lineage happened so fast (within 2 million years!) is because of drastic environmental changes occurring within that time strongly selecting for intelligence.

Why? Also, did you forget the picture I posted that showed the other relevant fossil species to whales and dolphins?

Of course, if you want a lineage, it's a lot easier to find one for an individual species than the shared one between different ones, since it cuts out the most recent ancestors not shared between both groups. I mean, if I was doing this for chimps and humans, I'd have to cut out all the bipeds.

Excellent speculative response if someone were speculating "a designer" as the point of their conversation (which I was not)...but if I were, the answer to "why" is "your opinion is as good as mine"...I do not know "WHY" or care to speculate.

And yes I also do not believe the fossils we found for Paki mean this was the earliest Paki nor were the Baleen Whale fossils found the earliest Baleen whales (and no one can know at this point).

But this "the reason why the evolution of the brain in the human lineage happened so fast (within 2 million years!) is because of drastic environmental changes occurring within that time strongly selecting for intelligence" is a declarative assertion (which in reality COULD BE a possible explanation...it MIGHT HAVE happened just that way). It is a viable hypothesis driven interpretation (a good guess) that makes me ask what specific "drastic environmental changes" that "selected for intelligence" occurred within that time?

"did you forget the picture I posted that showed the other relevant fossil species to whales and dolphins?"

Not at all...some of these creatures existed at the same time as whales (so ain't their granny)! In fact Whales may already have existed before Paki...we just do not have enough evidence to say. Most then extant sea creatures never fossilized.
 
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Justatruthseeker

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So gala


Though I do agree that speciation results in functionally new information in the genome what we see in your examples is galaxids from galaxids and bears from bears....I am sure JTS would agree with that application...

JTS do YOU believe preliminary bears led to varieties of bears? If so IMO as well this is a form of new information (nothing like bears becoming whales and such, but change nonetheless)
Exactly, bears remain bears, humans remain human, finches remain finches. And E. coli remains E. coli.

No one disputes that the information to create new subspecies of bears already exists within the genome. That “new” information they speak of, the possibility it can already occur is already in the genome. Mutations are copy errors. They take what already exists and simply arrange it in a new format. Nothing novel was created. Only what already exists was written in a different format, that possibility already existing within the genome to begin with.

If you have 26 letters of the alphabet, all words, and every word you can possibly imagine in the future is already a possibility. You may have never seen that word before, but it’s possibility already existed. It is not a new word, just one you have never seen before. There is a vast difference between what they are trying to imply and reality.

Also as the Grants found, interbreeding affects several genetic loci simulataneously, which is why interbreeding causes abrupt changes in form, within one or two generations, over their claims of mutation which takes millions of years and can never be observed. 2 to 3 orders of magnitude greater than their mutations, if that mutation is even beneficial to begin with. But unlike mutations, all interbreeding changes are beneficial. Birth defects happen because of mutations, not because of the natural changes to the genome with interbreeding.

They got nothing but useless words on paper. Incorrect assumptions from thinking a copy of what already exists as a possibility within the genome is novel and new. That possibility already existed. It is neither novel, nor new, just not yet before seen. And the exact same thing that happens from interbreeding, except barely affecting the creature over millions of years, compared to interbreeding which affects multiple genetic loci simultaneously.

But notice how they try to avoid the outcome of interbreeding which has changed forms right in front of their eyes, for a process that has never once changed the entire form in the history of observation, merely changed color, leg size, beak size, etc. And even the Grants showed mutations could not explain the rapid change in beak size when two different subspecies interbred. Or rapid change to changes in food source.

In their paper they talk about mutations to the ALX1 gene, then in the next sentence describe how a large billed finch mated with a small billed finch, and produced a medium billed finch. I mean please. And then none of them here will make a stand on their beliefs and make a stand on the ALX1 gene as the causation of new species. They proclaim it’s important, then won’t make a stand behind their own words.....
 
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Justatruthseeker

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For example, the reason why the evolution of the brain in the human lineage happened so fast (within 2 million years!) is because of drastic environmental changes occurring within that time strongly selecting for intelligence.
So for 2 million years mankind sat in caves, barely able to draw, and then within the last 10,000 years suddenly invented writing and language and advanced so drastically it’s not even explainable by your theory.

Or we can assume they lived in caves after the flood until conditions changed enough to leave and rebuild. No overnight magical change to the brain needed to explain the rapid seemingly rise in human cranial capacity. Just convienent shelter.

Of course, if you want a lineage, it's a lot easier to find one for an individual species than the shared one between different ones, since it cuts out the most recent ancestors not shared between both groups. I mean, if I was doing this for chimps and humans, I'd have to cut out all the bipeds.
We agree that it is easy to trace each distinct Kind, and that imaginary common ancestors must be added for every imaginary split to join those distinct Kinds. But finding those shared ones should be just as easy, since they must also have existed and should have left some trace, since we have both the claimed splits after, and the ones claimed to have went before. It’s only those that supposedly split that can’t be found. Perhaps because they never existed? Perhaps because like a wolf and a poodle or chiwahwah, you simply mistake changes in form as evolution of new species, when it is merely change of form within the species?
 
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Justatruthseeker

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To which I ask again, why would a designer design a bunch of organisms, with various degrees of intermediate traits between a land mammal and whales, all having a unique inner ear not seen in any other organisms or "designed pseudolineage"? To troll humanity (that might explain putting a 10 foot penis on an aquatic mammal, lol)?
Indeed, why would He, but then you already know the inner ear is similar between all of them, it’s your claim to relationship. If the ear changed, why would you then assume relationship? Why assume relationship simply because they are the same? They must function in similar environments. Similarity is to be expected by an Intelligent designer that understands the environment they are meant to function in.

Why give a whale and dolphin different ears, since they live in the same environment, or even one that primarily hunts its food in aquatic settings?

Why would a designer not use the same type of ear for animals all sharing the same type of aquatic environment, using the same type of hunting skill? You suggest a designer should put round wheels on one car and square wheels on the next, because they are not the same type of car. Type of car is irrelevant, function of the wheel is.
 
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tas8831

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I simply see it as being something different based on actuality and sound reasoning (though our conclusions would disagree).

We are so fortunate to have the world's ultimate authority on what is and is not: science; evidence; data; assumptions; etc. - right here on this little old forum!
 
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tas8831

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I actually think the Wiki article puts it together well when it says “The cladistic method interprets each character state transformation implied by the distribution of shared character states among taxa (or other terminals) as a potential piece of evidence for grouping. The outcome of a cladistic analysis is a cladograma tree-shaped diagram (dendrogram) that is interpreted to represent the best hypothesis of phylogenetic relationships.

So let’s recap the subjunctive mood in this definition of the methodology

a) Interprets...

b) transformation implied...

c) a POTENTIAL piece...

d) a diagram...INTERPRETED to represent...

e) hypothesis of phylogenetic relationships

See? Nothing factual, or actually knowable.

This is what happens when one is driven by a desire to reject that which threatens their archaic worldview - this hyper-parsing causes them to lose sight of the actual information.

So let us re-parse what the 3-decade autodidact declares regarding the Wiki entry, with alternative bolding for effect:


"The cladistic method interprets each character state transformation implied by the distribution of shared character states among taxa (or other terminals) as a potential piece of evidence for grouping."


In non-YECese, this means that, in the context of molecular analyses for example, that the patterns of mutation are 'potential pieces of evidence' that can be used to draw conclusions.



"The outcome of a cladistic analysis is a cladogram – a tree-shaped diagram (dendrogram)[16] that is interpreted to represent the best hypothesis of phylogenetic relationships."


In non-YECese, this means that a dendrogram/cladogram is the OUTPUT of an analysis - not a 'man-made' picture. That output is then - oh my goodness - INTERPRETED to be the best hypothesis of relationships based on the data used in the analysis.

How horrible!

in·ter·pre·ta·tion
inˌtərprəˈtāSH(ə)n/Submit
noun
the action of explaining the meaning of something.
"the interpretation of data"
synonyms: explanation, elucidation, expounding, exposition, explication, exegesis, clarification

Mustn't have that!

I do have to wonder - if INTERPRETATION is so bad, being biased and all, which INTERPRETATION of Scripture the science expert accepts?

As an aside, some of that Wiki entry looked a bit fishy to me, so I checked out the edit history. And interestingly - several editors now have non-existent profiles pages. I also checked one reference mentioned later in the article, indicating that some cladistics issues are circular in nature and subjective, but the reference provided indicates nothing of the sort. I have to wonder is creationists are up to their antics...

Anyway - isn't fun to argue against something you don't understand by hyper-parsing and over-interpreting the phrases you have been programmed to be suspicious of?
 
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tas8831

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"....the tree would indicate humans and chimps came from gorillas who came from orangutans and so on..."

Please provide a link to the Understanding Evolution site in which it is explained that a cladogram's branches indicate one group 'comes from' another.


Why is it so blasted hard for creationists to admit to even trivial errors?


Here is the Understanding Evolution page for understanding phylogenetic trees:

Understanding phylogenies

I sure hope you have a different one in mind.


And he never did...
 
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tas8831

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And yet a C inserted where a T was is exactly single-nucleotide polymorphism, which we have already found in another thread is caused by random changes during development,

You mean a mutation?

Brilliant!
or as the Grants discovered, was caused by interactions during interbreeding, that affected several loci at the same time.

I can 100% guarantee that the Grants did nothing of the sort.

Find the paper you imagine this is shown in, provide a link and the relevant quotes.

Show me the the Grants claimed that interbreeding produced new alleles.

Put up (for once), or for crying out loud, just shut up.



Also - odd that you totally ignored this take-down of your desperate nonsense:



So two links to two places selling a book about a guy researching his family history:


The Genetic Strand is the story of a writer's investigation, using DNA science, into the tale of his family's origins. National Book Award winner Edward Ball has turned his probing gaze on the microcosm of the human genome, and not just any human genome -- that of his slave-holding ancestors. What is the legacy of such a family history, and can DNA say something about it?

justifies you writing:

"I didnt ask you to show me that a C can be inserted between a T and G where the C already existed, but that a C can exist where C never existed at all in the entire genetic strand. "​

Most interesting indeed - yet another example of 'Christian' creationists refusing to admit to even trivial errors.
 
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PsychoSarah

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Excellent speculative response if someone were speculating "a designer" as the point of their conversation (which I was not)...but if I were, the answer to "why" is "your opinion is as good as mine"...I do not know "WHY" or care to speculate.
You said "why assume it mutated? Why couldn't the inner ear have always been like that?" Sincerely, there aren't any ways I can think of that this could be the case without a designer, because spontaneous generation was disproven decades ago.


And yes I also do not believe the fossils we found for Paki mean this was the earliest Paki nor were the Baleen Whale fossils found the earliest Baleen whales (and no one can know at this point).
Again, the creature you were referencing was not itself a Baleen whale, it's considered an ancestor to them. Plus, while I agree that it is unlikely that the fossils discovered entirely encompass the time frames that these creatures existed, the ones we do have don't lay out a range that is even close to overlapping. Plus, I mention again that part of a population can give rise to a drastically different species while the remainder remain relatively the same. This means that a species doesn't have to go extinct to give rise to another species, so even if there was evidence that members of the genus Pakicetus existed even at the same time as modern whales, that wouldn't rule them out as an ancestral species to those whales. The only way Pakicetus could be ruled out as an ancestor would be if whales predated them, and no current fossil evidence suggests that.

But this "the reason why the evolution of the brain in the human lineage happened so fast (within 2 million years!) is because of drastic environmental changes occurring within that time strongly selecting for intelligence" is a declarative assertion (which in reality COULD BE a possible explanation...it MIGHT HAVE happened just that way). It is a viable hypothesis driven interpretation (a good guess) that makes me ask what specific "drastic environmental changes" that "selected for intelligence" occurred within that time?
Temperature change (the climate became cooler and drier within a short period of time, as the general trend, but what is notable is that during the relevant time period, environmental fluctuations were occurring very frequently). Since the climate of human ancestors was changing, making typical food sources scarce, those that were smart enough to adapt to these changes survived to reproduce, and the remainder starved.


Not at all...some of these creatures existed at the same time as whales (so ain't their granny)! In fact Whales may already have existed before Paki...we just do not have enough evidence to say. Most then extant sea creatures never fossilized.
-_- some of them are whales. In fact, all of them as far back as Dorudon are whales (number 4 in the picture). They just aren't like modern whales, which covers the species you mentioned as well.
 
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pshun2404

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You said "why assume it mutated? Why couldn't the inner ear have always been like that?" Sincerely, there aren't any ways I can think of that this could be the case without a designer, because spontaneous generation was disproven decades ago.

Again, the creature you were referencing was not itself a Baleen whale, it's considered an ancestor to them. Plus, while I agree that it is unlikely that the fossils discovered entirely encompass the time frames that these creatures existed, the ones we do have don't lay out a range that is even close to overlapping. Plus, I mention again that part of a population can give rise to a drastically different species while the remainder remain relatively the same. This means that a species doesn't have to go extinct to give rise to another species, so even if there was evidence that members of the genus Pakicetus existed even at the same time as modern whales, that wouldn't rule them out as an ancestral species to those whales. The only way Pakicetus could be ruled out as an ancestor would be if whales predated them, and no current fossil evidence suggests that.

Temperature change (the climate became cooler and drier within a short period of time, as the general trend, but what is notable is that during the relevant time period, environmental fluctuations were occurring very frequently). Since the climate of human ancestors was changing, making typical food sources scarce, those that were smart enough to adapt to these changes survived to reproduce, and the remainder starved.

-_- some of them are whales. In fact, all of them as far back as Dorudon are whales (number 4 in the picture). They just aren't like modern whales, which covers the species you mentioned as well.

Good enough Sarah, thanks...Pakicetus was named “Cetus” and placed among the Cetaceans (the root of which means Huge Fish...a mistaken identity assigned by ignorant ancients). Clearly it is a terrestrial mammal that has nothing in common with fish, and only a couple of ear bones in common with whales. To me it’s a no-brainer....though the American Museum of Natural History and National Geographic call it “the first whale” it clearly is neither first nor a whale but believe what you want.
 
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Justatruthseeker

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You mean a mutation?

Brilliant!
Or what happens with natural pairings on the order of magnitude 2 to 3 times greater than mutations. Imagine that.

I can 100% guarantee that the Grants did nothing of the sort.
And you would be 100% wrong since the Grants found exactly that and stated exactly that. But then being wrong and ignoring the actual data is nothing new for you.

Find the paper you imagine this is shown in, provide a link and the relevant quotes.
It’s quoted right here in this thread, not that you bothered to read it the first time.

Show me the the Grants claimed that interbreeding produced new alleles.

Put up (for once), or for crying out loud, just shut up.
Will it finally shut you up?

https://www.researchgate.net/public...tion_on_Darwin's_finches_Evolution_48_297-316

“For example, in Darwin's finches, 'New additive genetic variance introduced by hybridization is estimated to be two to three orders of magnitude greater than that introduced by mutation' (Grant & Grant, 1994).”

So the question is now that I have “put up” are you finally going to “shut up” about your false claims? No, I expect double-talk and avoidance and repeated nonsense from you. Your failure to accept the truth is just astonishing....
 
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tas8831

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Ah, the fun times... I had forgotten how fun it was to point out the laughable "explanations" and the outcomes of the Dunning-Kruger effect (coupled with religious fervor) on here....
Will it finally shut you up?

https://www.researchgate.net/public...tion_on_Darwin's_finches_Evolution_48_297-316

“For example, in Darwin's finches, 'New additive genetic variance introduced by hybridization is estimated to be two to three orders of magnitude greater than that introduced by mutation' (Grant & Grant, 1994).”

OK.... Here is what the seeker had written, to which I had replied before:




"And yet a C inserted where a T was is exactly single-nucleotide polymorphism, which we have already found in another thread is caused by random changes during development, or as the Grants discovered, was caused by interactions during interbreeding, that affected several loci at the same time."


Shall I point out the funny bits? OK -


"And yet a C inserted where a T was is exactly single-nucleotide polymorphism"



Yes, that is correct. Good so far.


" which we have already found in another thread is caused by random changes during development"



Ummm..... No....

Mutations are not introduced "during development", they are introduced during DNA replication, at least the ones that are passed on.



"or as the Grants discovered, was caused by interactions during interbreeding, that affected several loci at the same time."



Wow...

Let me try to interpret that - The Grants discovered that SNPs are caused by interbreeding, and that this introduction of SNPs during interbreeding affected several loci at a time.

Given that justa is ignorant of the relevant terminology and the relevant science, I can cut him a tiny bit of slack (his unwarranted certainty on matters he should admit to now knowing much about drops him down several spots in my ranking, but for this post, I will be magnanimous). He may actually be referring to pleiotropy, which is a real thing, but in a crude and uninformed manner, so I will let the the last part of the quote go.

But the first part?

Nope.

SNPs (mutations) are not "caused by interactions during interbreeding."

Sorry Charlie, your astonishment at me not accepting your "truth" is due to the fact that your "truth" is ignorance-based fantasy, and you cannot bring yourself to admit it.

And the supposed support?


“For example, in Darwin's finches, 'New additive genetic variance introduced by hybridization is estimated to be two to three orders of magnitude greater than that introduced by mutation' (Grant & Grant, 1994).”



Justa seems to think that this 'genetic variance' is the result of SNPs generated during interbreeding.

Nope - genetic variance is, generally, the observed interactions between alleles. Not the generation of alleles via SNPs during interbreeding. The interbreeding recombines different alleles from different populations and alters phenotype.

Poor justa... He tries so hard.
 
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tas8831

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Sorry DH I get his non-point. All that I said is correct.

So, pshun thinks this:



"I do appreciate what cladistics has to offer (far more likely than older taxonomic methods nased mostly on homology) but look at your tree....the tree would indicate humans and chimps came from gorillas who came from orangutans and so on...do you agree?"



is correct.

And he wonders why we don't think he knows what he is talking about... I mean beyond the plagiarism and quote doctoring...
 
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tas8831

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LOL! Wow - forgot how deep this runs in YECs...
Spelling error?

Sure - how could I possibly expect someone implying amazing expertise on a subject to be familiar with the actual terminology of that subject. How nit-picky...



So two links to two places selling a book about a guy researching his family history:


The Genetic Strand is the story of a writer's investigation, using DNA science, into the tale of his family's origins. National Book Award winner Edward Ball has turned his probing gaze on the microcosm of the human genome, and not just any human genome -- that of his slave-holding ancestors. What is the legacy of such a family history, and can DNA say something about it?​


justifies you writing:

"I didnt ask you to show me that a C can be inserted between a T and G where the C already existed, but that a C can exist where C never existed at all in the entire genetic strand. "

Right...

OK...
 
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tas8831

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Just to tie up a loose end....
As for molecular Phylogenetics, first they expect that sequences conserved in various organisms will accumulate mutations over time, but this is not always the case, because many alleged differences interpreted to be mutations (indicated by the assignment of the term insertion or deletion once the separating sequence alignment has been applied) may not be mutations just differences between these unique equally possibly unrelated organisms.

Great - provide your evidence. To include evidence that mutations in intergenic non-regulatory DNA affect phenotype.

Can't wait!
I say this because they cannot demonstrate these alleged mutations were once something different in the same type of organism (one thing mutating into another).
Can you demonstrate that they were always like that - that mutations don't occur? We can (and have) sequenced genomes of 'parent' and 'offspring' and seen that there are nucleotide differences. Why make special rules for how we apply genetics knowledge when it concerns your pet beliefs?

What is your evidence that this somehow ceases when looking at more than 1 lineage?

Your ad hoc desperation is interesting in its psychology, but I am guessing that were someone to apply the same sort of escapism to YEC cult beliefs or the question of the Inspiration of the bible (we know how you dealt with that in 2014) you would sing a different (double standards) tune.

Second there is an assumption of “constant rate of mutation” that simply does not exist.

Then you must be able to provide evidence that this is an assumption.
a) There are real mutations and those alleged to be as a result of noted differences

Please condescend from on high to explain how one identifies the difference?
b) We KNOW the rate is not actually constant so this assumption biases the interpretation of data
Since we know this, why do you assume that this knowledge is not applied to molecular phylogenetics?

Is this part of your brainwashing plan?

I mean, in your 30 years of in-depth study on molecular phylogenetics did you never once read about the Maximum Likelihood method? Did your studies not find that the method, by "design", does NOT assume constant mutation rates?

What can we conclude from you claim that there is an assumption of constant rates? Was it purposeful deception on your part? Or ignorance? Or a mere desire for it to be so?
Did you never read about how this was applied to phylogenetics because earlier methods did not take it into account (interestingly, the outcomes of algorithms such as maximum parsimony, which to not generally consider mutation rate differences nevertheless produce outcomes that are typically identical to those of ML methods, at least in my experience)?

Most interesting how confidence in erroneous claims shows a positive correlation with those being creationists.

And also please explain how this truly causes a big problem for phylogenetics?

Especially when the methods have been tested on knowns and shown to be accurate? Could it be that in most cases, your concerns are irrelevant?

From this assumption they devise imagined molecular clocks that are based on this misinformation and from this they devise their evolutionary or phylogenetic “trees” believing and most stating these to be probable.

Oh right - this dopey erroneous canard. I forgot you tried this one before.

No, molecular phylogenetics is NOT premised on the universal molecular clock. Never was - this is just a creationist lie.

In fact, in Hall's "Phylogenetic Trees Made Easy", 'molecular clock' does not even appear in the index. You'd think if the concept of the universal molecular clock was a foundational assumption of molecular phylogenetics, it might, maybe, be mentioned in a book about generating phylogenetic trees?

Clock concepts are used in inferring dates/timeframes of things, but not for phylogenies.

Or maybe if this was a big assumption that nobody wants to talk about, you can explain why there are 23 pages on the subject in Li's "Molecular Evolution" book? To include entire sections dedicated to rate differences? Nah - it is all just a big assumption of the universal molecular clock... Yup... Who are we to disbelieve documentably false assertions churned out by Dr.Plagiarism....

Only this “probable” is based on the assumptions mentioned above.

Which is false...

Therefore it may be likely only IF

a) All the alleged mutations actually are mutations (which is not factually known, many existing in those organisms as far back as we can determine)

b) If the various organism’s mutation rates are actually constant (which we KNOW they are not)

It is so precious how you actually seem to believe your false propaganda.

Of course, if your claims had merit, you have to explain to us how they can re-create known phylogenies, and also why Creation Scientists would use the same programs as real scientists do when assessing 'baraminological phylogenies'...

But you are in error, so it doesn't matter.
Let’s face it, the whole evidential implication is drawn from the homological aspects of the sequences that the program searches and for and aligns (which do not occur naturally in sequence).

Ah yes - the other old Gish claim about gaps. So sad and desperate.
These areas do not occur in the natural sequence of each type of organism in the same place, and often have different sequences preceding and/or following (and we all know what just a couple of actual mutant base pair differences can do let alone how the sequences preceding and/or following can effect function of the similar sequences in different organisms).

You write as if you are some sort of world-renowned expert on this and nobody else knows anything about it. Sadly, as usual you are wrong.

Believe it or not, we actually know about things like insertions, deletions, tandem duplications, etc. Just because YOU don't is no reason to assume that nobody else does.

Sorry.
In some organisms different sequences perform similar functions and same sequences can and sometimes do perform different functions. So in the end we know we can use this to see phylogeny (paternity and maternity) in a given species and its subsequent sub-species but that is it. Nothing more about historical transformations can be factually implied only speculated based on the pre-held conviction (which existed and was believed from before Darwin without a hint of evidence except hypothesis based interpretation of fossils and geological layers).

Ah - so in addition to throwing everything but the kitchen sink at molecular phylogenetics in your desperation, you are also of the opinion that only functional sequence is used in such analyses.

Cool how you unwittingly admit that you actually don't understand how any of this works.

Because in reality, we actually LIKE noncoding, non-regulatory DNA for phylogenetic analyses. I know you don't know why that might be, but I do hope you try to explain it to me. Because I've done LOTS of these sorts of anaylses. And you've done none, and seem to get all of your information about these processes from YEC websites, which you then try to gussy-up by doing keyword searches for non-YEC sources to use and often take out of context and misrepresent.
And do not forget the new discovery of horizontal gene transfer, and commonality of biogeographic factors influencing multiple life forms simultaneously.

Yes, so new - only about 50 years old. But do throw more sinks at us!

Maybe one day you will find one that actually works!
So this particular cladistics approach MUST ASSUME:

a) Classification must be arranged to support the presupposition of phylogenetic descent, and

The same presupposition used by creationists, you mean? The horror!

b) That all the taxa deemed to be valid for the study must be monophyletic (all are ancestors of a common descendent)
Ancestors of a common descent [sic]?? You mean like how you believe with no evidence that all canids are derived in an ancestor-descendant fashion from an original dog-kind make from dust of the ground? Except without the artificial constraints? Can't have that!

Neither of which are conclusions one can draw FROM the data but effect construction and interpretation of the data.


Right.

So cool how you totally ignore the fact that your own statement from that other site proves you don't know how to interpret cladograms (you know, the actual topic of this thread?), so awesome that you really seem so confident in your erroneous beliefs about phylogenetics, extra cool that you diss the "assumption" of ancestor-descendant relationships when your own belief system REQUIRES it, just with constraints premised on the rantings of ancient numerologists and mystics.

Yeah, your arguments are totally awesome and convincing!







LOL!!!!!
 
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Isn't it telling what creationist pontificators ignore...
Just to tie up a loose end....

Great - provide your evidence. To include evidence that mutations in intergenic non-regulatory DNA affect phenotype.

Can't wait!

Can you demonstrate that they were always like that - that mutations don't occur? We can (and have) sequenced genomes of 'parent' and 'offspring' and seen that there are nucleotide differences. Why make special rules for how we apply genetics knowledge when it concerns your pet beliefs?

What is your evidence that this somehow ceases when looking at more than 1 lineage?

Your ad hoc desperation is interesting in its psychology, but I am guessing that were someone to apply the same sort of escapism to YEC cult beliefs or the question of the Inspiration of the bible (we know how you dealt with that in 2014) you would sing a different (double standards) tune.



Then you must be able to provide evidence that this is an assumption.


Please condescend from on high to explain how one identifies the difference?

Since we know this, why do you assume that this knowledge is not applied to molecular phylogenetics?

Is this part of your brainwashing plan?

I mean, in your 30 years of in-depth study on molecular phylogenetics did you never once read about the Maximum Likelihood method? Did your studies not find that the method, by "design", does NOT assume constant mutation rates?

What can we conclude from you claim that there is an assumption of constant rates? Was it purposeful deception on your part? Or ignorance? Or a mere desire for it to be so?
Did you never read about how this was applied to phylogenetics because earlier methods did not take it into account (interestingly, the outcomes of algorithms such as maximum parsimony, which to not generally consider mutation rate differences nevertheless produce outcomes that are typically identical to those of ML methods, at least in my experience)?

Most interesting how confidence in erroneous claims shows a positive correlation with those being creationists.

And also please explain how this truly causes a big problem for phylogenetics?

Especially when the methods have been tested on knowns and shown to be accurate? Could it be that in most cases, your concerns are irrelevant?



Oh right - this dopey erroneous canard. I forgot you tried this one before.

No, molecular phylogenetics is NOT premised on the universal molecular clock. Never was - this is just a creationist lie.

In fact, in Hall's "Phylogenetic Trees Made Easy", 'molecular clock' does not even appear in the index. You'd think if the concept of the universal molecular clock was a foundational assumption of molecular phylogenetics, it might, maybe, be mentioned in a book about generating phylogenetic trees?

Clock concepts are used in inferring dates/timeframes of things, but not for phylogenies.

Or maybe if this was a big assumption that nobody wants to talk about, you can explain why there are 23 pages on the subject in Li's "Molecular Evolution" book? To include entire sections dedicated to rate differences? Nah - it is all just a big assumption of the universal molecular clock... Yup... Who are we to disbelieve documentably false assertions churned out by Dr.Plagiarism....



Which is false...



It is so precious how you actually seem to believe your false propaganda.

Of course, if your claims had merit, you have to explain to us how they can re-create known phylogenies, and also why Creation Scientists would use the same programs as real scientists do when assessing 'baraminological phylogenies'...

But you are in error, so it doesn't matter.


Ah yes - the other old Gish claim about gaps. So sad and desperate.


You write as if you are some sort of world-renowned expert on this and nobody else knows anything about it. Sadly, as usual you are wrong.

Believe it or not, we actually know about things like insertions, deletions, tandem duplications, etc. Just because YOU don't is no reason to assume that nobody else does.

Sorry.


Ah - so in addition to throwing everything but the kitchen sink at molecular phylogenetics in your desperation, you are also of the opinion that only functional sequence is used in such analyses.

Cool how you unwittingly admit that you actually don't understand how any of this works.

Because in reality, we actually LIKE noncoding, non-regulatory DNA for phylogenetic analyses. I know you don't know why that might be, but I do hope you try to explain it to me. Because I've done LOTS of these sorts of anaylses. And you've done none, and seem to get all of your information about these processes from YEC websites, which you then try to gussy-up by doing keyword searches for non-YEC sources to use and often take out of context and misrepresent.

Yes, so new - only about 50 years old. But do throw more sinks at us!

Maybe one day you will find one that actually works!


The same presupposition used by creationists, you mean? The horror!


Ancestors of a common descent [sic]?? You mean like how you believe with no evidence that all canids are derived in an ancestor-descendant fashion from an original dog-kind make from dust of the ground? Except without the artificial constraints? Can't have that!




Right.

So cool how you totally ignore the fact that your own statement from that other site proves you don't know how to interpret cladograms (you know, the actual topic of this thread?), so awesome that you really seem so confident in your erroneous beliefs about phylogenetics, extra cool that you diss the "assumption" of ancestor-descendant relationships when your own belief system REQUIRES it, just with constraints premised on the rantings of ancient numerologists and mystics.

Yeah, your arguments are totally awesome and convincing!







LOL!!!!!
 
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Isn't it telling what creationist pontificators ignore...
If you have a question you'd like answered from a creationist, I'll be more than happy to try and pontificate if I can.

But if it has words in it that my great-grandmother wouldn't understand ... forget it.

Ditto for a Philadelphia lawyer or my cat.
 
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