Saying that Yahweh would have been convincing does not negate that some other convincing being might have been the one Abraham was hearing all that time.
But not in that isolated context alone. We're talking about One omnipotent being that kept the promise to Abraham throughout scripture. It's one consistent message. The apostle Paul notes the same consistency with fulfilled prophesy in
Romans 4:3 and
Galatians 3:6, as well as James in
James 2:23. Also the author of Hebrews notes the same consistency in
Hebrews 6:13,
11:8 , and
11:17. "Some other convincing being," would have contradicted it. Again, this is a single consistent and integrated message of redemption. Therefore, that consistency demonstrates one source.
You say this in response to, "What if Abraham was mistaken, and he was talking to an imposter?"
Answered above, but redundantly so in anticipation of lame "gotcha badgering."
Huh? What fulfilled prophecy do you think proves that the voice that spoke to Abraham was not an imposter?
Answered above, but redundantly so in anticipation of lame "gotcha badgering."
I did not ignore your answer.
You're not ignoring the answer, but you are ignoring "how" it was stated. So to drag out your intentional redundancy, I'll continue repeating myself further:
1. I already stated that Abraham was willing to take
the sin upon himself.
<-- This already acknowledges and agrees that it is a bad thing.
2. Once again, you need the believer to agree with you, so you can leech off of his Judeo-Christian ethic. Why? Because atheists have no objective standard of right or wrong.
<-- This continues to be a very real problem for you that cannot be blithely dismissed.
But you refused to answer this question: "Setting out to kill your son as Abraham set out to do is wrong, yes?"
Do you have no answer?
Posting the same to appease your deliberate redundancy:
1. I already stated that Abraham was willing to take
the sin upon himself.
<-- This already acknowledges and agrees that it is a bad thing.
2. Once again, you need the believer to agree with you, so you can leech off of his Judeo-Christian ethic. Why? Because atheists have no objective standard of right or wrong.
<-- This continues to be a very real problem for you that cannot be blithely dismissed.
What does this even mean? And how does that address the question?
"sin" = "objective wrong" Please pay attention.
I have explained multiple times why this is false.
Subjectively, but not objectively. Morality is an objective universal claim. You can't step around it with optional "if" preferences. Morality isn't a preference.
But even if it is true it is a red herring.
It's not a red herring, because it illustrates the atheist failure to account for right or wrong entirely on their own, while seek dependency on my Judeo-Christian ethic instead.
Actually when you brought this up before, I mentioned alternatives I could appeal to like the Greeks, Egyptians, and American Indians. Why do you ignore what I write?
Because Western Civilization was not
primarily founded on the Egyptians, and American Indians. However, the Roman Catholic Church found consistent observations harmonious with Greek philosophy, but the church's conclusion was that even Greek pagans confirm Romans 1:18-20. I agree with this position.
No, none of these prove that the words in the Bible are objective truth.
And that's where your "nuh-uh" assertion begins and ends. You have nothing to really counter it apart from a blase "nuh-uh."
(a.) General Revelation would only match with one form of Special Revelation, and vice-versa. See the omnipotence litmus test I posted earlier.
(b.) Historical evidence of the Resurrection (see Gary Habermas) would determine, "If Jesus were truly resurrected, then it would confirm everything He said about Himself, as well as scripture. It would prove that Jesus Christ is God incarnate." Jesus was an orthodox Jew. Jesus fulfilled the Jewish prophesy. Jesus rose from the dead. Therefore, the Bible is objective truth.
(c.) The statement, "Atheists have no proof or evidence of objective truth," means you have no objective argument to the contrary. This isn't about your will. I'm not here to personally convince you. The facts remain regardless of your forced incredulity.
You claim "General Revelation" but that is nothing more than a claim, not proof.
As I've stated numerous times before, we've had over 700+ years of the proof of General Revelation. No atheist or general secularist has ever objectively refuted any of the Classical logical arguments for the existence of God. If deductive logic, therefore proof.
No wild goose chases, please. I cited Habermas. Did anyone in that thread cite Habermas? If so, exactly and specifically how was he refuted? <-- Show your work.