- Mar 7, 2002
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Hello everyone.
As is often the case, I was recently informed that man has "free will." Now, we have all probably had more discussions on this topic than we thought possible so I want to assure you that I do not intend for this to be the same type of discussion. I am truly interested in your response and so I simply ask that, for the purpose of actually discussing this topic, any who participate keep their comments controlled.
There is, for me at least, a bit of mystery surrounding the claim that man has "free will." This is in part due to the various ways in which people employ that claim.
So, in light of the fact that there may be differences in how people define "free will," I suggest that on your initial response each participant define the manner in which they understand "free will." I will start:
I believe man's will is free only to the extent that he will choose that which he most desires at the moment of choice. In fact, as a rational creature, he must choose according to his greatest desire or inclination at the moment of choice.
Now, such a claim is essential to my understanding of the desparity between the "freedom" of the will of unregenerate man vice regenerate man. I do not believe that pleasing God is ever the greatest desire of unregenerate man, therefore, it is never the driving motivation for anything he does. It is my desire that we discuss the influence that our desires hold over our will and, specifically, how our desires regulate, and even limit, our ability to choose "freely."
To facilitate my point, I would ask any who participate to think of a time when they made a choice to do something they were unwilling to do. I ask for such an example because I do not believe man is capable of choosing to do that which he is unwilling to do. Now, this may seem like a given to some of you, but it is this very contention that I am regularly told is the driving force in man's "acceptance of Christ." I am told, "Man's will is inherently free to serve and obey God in righteousness, he often just isn't willing to do so." That, to me, seems like an oxymoron, "He's able but not willing."
I would say that a person's unwillingness to do something effectively negates his ability to do it.
If you disagree with that, please provide an example of a time when you chose to do something you were unwilling to do followed by your reason for doing it.
Thank you for your participation.
God bless
As is often the case, I was recently informed that man has "free will." Now, we have all probably had more discussions on this topic than we thought possible so I want to assure you that I do not intend for this to be the same type of discussion. I am truly interested in your response and so I simply ask that, for the purpose of actually discussing this topic, any who participate keep their comments controlled.
There is, for me at least, a bit of mystery surrounding the claim that man has "free will." This is in part due to the various ways in which people employ that claim.
So, in light of the fact that there may be differences in how people define "free will," I suggest that on your initial response each participant define the manner in which they understand "free will." I will start:
I believe man's will is free only to the extent that he will choose that which he most desires at the moment of choice. In fact, as a rational creature, he must choose according to his greatest desire or inclination at the moment of choice.
Now, such a claim is essential to my understanding of the desparity between the "freedom" of the will of unregenerate man vice regenerate man. I do not believe that pleasing God is ever the greatest desire of unregenerate man, therefore, it is never the driving motivation for anything he does. It is my desire that we discuss the influence that our desires hold over our will and, specifically, how our desires regulate, and even limit, our ability to choose "freely."
To facilitate my point, I would ask any who participate to think of a time when they made a choice to do something they were unwilling to do. I ask for such an example because I do not believe man is capable of choosing to do that which he is unwilling to do. Now, this may seem like a given to some of you, but it is this very contention that I am regularly told is the driving force in man's "acceptance of Christ." I am told, "Man's will is inherently free to serve and obey God in righteousness, he often just isn't willing to do so." That, to me, seems like an oxymoron, "He's able but not willing."
I would say that a person's unwillingness to do something effectively negates his ability to do it.
If you disagree with that, please provide an example of a time when you chose to do something you were unwilling to do followed by your reason for doing it.
Thank you for your participation.
God bless