ETide said:
What I mean is this therese, I do not limit any book of the bible in any way. I consider it the living and abiding word of God. I understand distinctions between books of the Law, books of the prophets, the psalms, proverbs, etc.. although they're still all limitless and dynamic in their ability to speak the heart and mind of God's people.
I disagree. There are limits as to how we can properly understand the words of scripture .. the possiblities are not limitless as you seem to contend.
When the scriptures say thou shalt not commit adultery, can that be understood as thou shalt commit adultery?
Would you agree that there
are limits on how we can understand 'thou shalt not commit adultery" ?
See, there is no such thing as true "limitlessness" regarding God's word, or we would be forced to admit there are not limits in how we can understand the words "thou shalt not commit adultery".
So your premise, unless you are willing to admit that "thou shalt not commit adultery" can be understood "thou shalt commit adultery".
Do you see your dilema?
I hope that I've made it clear that there is always a possibility of myself being wrong, I am not perfect, I am not God, but I do know that I have Christ in me, my hope of glory, and I know that the spirit of God leads me in understanding and in truth when I humble myself before Him and His word.
Again, I would hope that you too can admit the possibility that you're wrong about this.
I think what needs to happen is to have hidden assumptions tested to see if they really hold up. I found mine regarding premillenialism . . I tested them, rigorously. It would have been much, much easier for me to have continued to beliee it true than to find at its most foundational level assumptions, presumption and speculatative interpretation .. nothing solid.
If you can produce something that is not assumption, presumption adn speculation regarding the foundations of dispensatoinalism, I am all ears. But after the very extensive investigation I did, I found there was nothing.
I am not afraid at all at having what I believe closely examined.
But it needs to be LOGICAL. the arguments need to be logical, and the evidence needs to be logically used and valid for its purpose. . . the evidence and arguments cannot be based on speculation, assumptions and presumptions.
Do you agree?
Who does then, another man or woman who is just as we are..?
Are all men and woman equal in all things?
Are their experts in their field or are there not? Are you an expert in the field of biblical literature?
In the portion you refer to, it would certainly "be better" for a man to pluck out his eye or cut off his hand rather than be cast into hell fire.. certainly that's literal.
Then we have an area of divergence here. . a significant one.
Remember, I said above that any arguments would need to be logical, and proof would need to be logically valid for its purpose. . .
We have to start here, at this most basic and fundamental level . . how we understand langauge and the words and phrases used by people 2000 years removed from us in a completely different culture in a completely different langauge.
I will give you this information and you can tell me if you think you can agree:
The middle eastern people use
hyperbole . .
a deliberate exaggeration in order to make a point . . it is a
literary device . .a
figure of speach.
Hyperbole cannot be taken or understood literally . . otherwise violence is done to this literary device, to the language itself, and a
false and erroneous understanding results.
Hyperbole was common in ancient Judaism . .Jesus used hyperbole as He understood His hearers would understand and not take Him literally, but would instead get His real point which He wanted to emphasise as strongly as possible. That is the purpose of hyperbole.
Can we agree that Jesus was using hyperbole in this passage and was NOT speaking of literally cutting off one's hands or feet or plucking out one's eyes?
There are many things in scripture that are given as examples.. The Lord says that He is the bread of life although I know that He isn't a loaf of bread. He is said to be the true vine although I know that He is not a literal vine. He is said to be the Lamb of God who taketh away the sin of the world although I know that He is not a Lamb.
OK . . so, Jesus was speaking
figuratively, symbolically, right?
Then, that would mean He
wasn't speaking
LITERALLY, right?
He is
not LITEREALLY a loaf of bread, He is
not LITERALLY a vine, He is
not LITERALLY a lamb.
So, we have at least
TWO CATAGORIES of words/speach in the scriptures . .
NOT NO catagories
.
Yet, you were telling me earlier that to try to put words of the bible (or a particular book) into some type of catagory misses the whole point.
Yet we see that there are
at least TWO catagories the words of scripture fall into . .
Literal and Symbolic that you yourself admit to.
So the whole idea of
no catagories, or catagories not being valid, really has
no basis.
Obviously there are catagories, and we must pay attemtion to them, or we could go way off in left field believing that Jesus is really a literal lamb, or a literal vine, or a literal loaf of bread.
Understanding what catagories words of scripture fall into help us to avoid making such grevious errors.
Don't you agree?
I find it interesting that the catholic doctrine believes that they literally turn a piece of bread into the flesh and blood of Christ... although many remember Christ in His death every first day of the week and simply receive the elements of the bread and wine as a reminder of His body and of His blood that was shed.
Of course that is a topic for a different thread.

But it is an example of how one can take something that is intended to be literal as symbolic (or vica versa) by failing to understand the nature of what is being said, by failing to understand how the words used were and were not used in the ancient world . . . In this case, Jesus employs a word for "eat" that is
only ever used literally never symbolically in ancient Greek. . . There
were ther words he could have used that could be understood symbolically for "eat" in the Greek langauge, but not the one Jesus used. (In fact he did used one at first, because it was commonly used literally, but when He was not understood, He switched to the word that could
only be used
LITERALLY).
But that particular topic aside, understanding
how langauge was used back at the time of Jesus is absolutely essential in understanding what was said, or not said. .. just reading an English translation 2000 years removed from the writers, people, culture, langauge and time is not enough.
Do you agree?
Peace